Answer:
The second option which 5 years to maturity exhibited a lower price of
$523.95
Explanation:
In order to ascertain the option with lower, it is important we determine the price of each investment based on the fact the price of an investment opportunity today is the present value of its future cash flow is the maturity value of $1000 in both cases:
a.
PV=FV/(1+r)^n
PV=price of investment
FV=future value=$1000
r= 13.80%.
n=4 years
PV=$1000/(1+13.80%)^4
PV=$596.25
b.
PV=FV/(1+r)^n
PV=price of investment
FV=future value=$1000
r= 13.80%.
n=5 years
PV=$1000/(1+13.80%)^5
PV= $523.95
This is often referred to as the clinical approach. The clinical approach is also known as the threshold approach to clinical decision making. This approach combines rational and quantitative information with a general approach to decision making. In this situation, say you were hiring a new employee, a person using the clinical approach would look at their resume in how they match up with numbers and on paper to the candidate their looking for but also who they are as a person in a general sense.
The total sales-mix variance in terms of the contribution margin is $2,60,000 favorable.
The contribution margin is computed because of the promoting charge per unit, minus the variable fee per unit. Also called dollar contribution consistent with the unit, the degree shows how a particular product contributes to the overall earnings of the company.
Contribution margin, or dollar contribution consistent with the unit, is the promoting charge according to the unit minus the variable value in keeping with the unit. "Contribution" represents the part of income revenue that is not fed on with the aid of variable expenses and so contributes to the insurance of fixed expenses.
The closer a contribution margin percent, or ratio, is to a hundred%, the higher. The higher the ratio, the extra cash is available to cover the enterprise's overhead costs or fixed costs. However, it is much more likely that the contribution margin ratio is properly under 100%, and in all likelihood beneath 50%.
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Answer:
Total Revenue of Cocaine will increase.
Explanation:
Elasticity of demand is demand responsiveness to price change.
Price & Total Revenue have relationships as per Elasticity of Demand :
- Elastic Demand >1 : Change in quantity demanded > change in price ; Price & Total Revenue negatively related.
- Inelastic Demand < 1 : Change in quantity demanded < price change ; Price & Total Revenue positively related
Given : Demand for crack cocaine is inelastic. If government increases penalties on cocaine supply, number of dealers decrease.
Then , the supply of cocaine will fall. Supply Shortage will increase the price. However - because demand is inelastic , total revenue will increase as a result of price rise.
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
Goodwill arises when is a business is acquired as a going concern. It is an intangible asset of a business. Goodwill represents the value of a company's customer base, its location, any patents, and the brand name. It consists of the value of suppliers, customers, and employee relationships that facilitates the smooth running of the business.
The value of goodwill is the difference between the purchase price and the net cost of its tangible and other intangible assets of a business. Amortization of goodwill means spreading the cost of goodwill to several financial years.
Goodwill is amortized because the business benefits from the goodwill for many years. In other words, the expenditure on goodwill will profit the company in more than one financial year. As per the matching principle, expenses and incomes should be recognized in the period they occur. As benefits will be enjoyed in many years, the expenses should also be spread in similar years.
