The main disadvantage of the valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.
In a free cash flow valuation, the intrinsic value equals present value of its free cash flow and thus, the net cash flow is left over for distribution to stockholders and debt-holders in each period.
- So, the disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.
Hence, the Option B is correct.
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Answer:
The answer is True.
Explanation:
Because, then new firms will enter in the long run causing market supply to decrease, market price to fall , and profits to decrease.
Answer:
Explanation:
Question 27
If Wheat Company had used the FIFO inventory method, income before income taxes would have been $75,000 higher in the current year. As inventory is an asset to the company. Therefore the $75,000 in inventory would have increased the company's asset and increasing the income before taxes.
Question 28
Other things held constant, which of the following will NOT affect the current ratio, assuming an initial Not yet current ratio greater than 1.0?
C. Accounts receivable are collected in cash.
Current ratio measures a company's ability to pay short-term obligations as at when due. It indicates that a company can manage its debts and other payable when their current assets is well managed.
It is calculated as Current Asset/ Current Liability. A ratio of 1 and above is the best meaning that a company an manage its debts obligations well.
Answer:
The correct answer is: Option; premium or option price.
Explanation:
As the name implies, an option refers to the right that is given to a potential buyer of capital goods to exercise currency trading within a specified time and amount. To carry out this process, an in-depth study must be carried out in order to make the best investment decision, for the benefit of both parties.
For its part, the price of the premium or option refers to the amount paid by the buyer in order to exercise the legitimate right over the capital asset. The premium corresponds to the value paid in excess and that represents a higher value for the seller within market estimates.
Answer:
The depreciation expense for 2015 is $2,000
Explanation:
The computation of the depreciation expense is shown below:
= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ useful life
= ($35,500 - $4,000) ÷ 7 years
= 4,500
The depreciation for three years would be
= 4,500 × 3 years
= $13,500
The remaining amount would be
= $35,500 - $13,500
= $22,000
So, the depreciation expense for 2015 would be
= ($22,000 - $4,000) ÷ 9 years
= 2,000
