Answer:
a-The present value of revenue in the first year is $61,085.92.
b-The total time it would take to pay for its price is 2.44 years of 29.33 months.
Explanation:
a-
Let the function of the revenue earned is given as
![S(t)=\left \{ {{66000t+38000} {\ \ 0The present value is given as [tex]PV=\int\limits^a_b {S(t)e^{-rt}} \, dt](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S%28t%29%3D%5Cleft%20%5C%7B%20%7B%7B66000t%2B38000%7D%20%7B%5C%20%5C%200%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3EThe%20present%20value%20is%20given%20as%20%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5DPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5Ea_b%20%7BS%28t%29e%5E%7B-rt%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt)
Here
- a and b are the limits of integral which are 0 and 1 respectively
- r is the rate of interest which is 5% or 0.05
- S(t) is the function of value which is
![S(t)=\left \{ {{66000t+38000} {\ \ 0So the equation becomes[tex]PV=\int\limits^0_1 {S(t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(66000t+38000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{1}_{0.5}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(66000t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(38000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{1}_{0.5}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=8113.7805+18764.4669+34207.6751\\PV=61085.9225](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S%28t%29%3D%5Cleft%20%5C%7B%20%7B%7B66000t%2B38000%7D%20%7B%5C%20%5C%200%3C%2Fli%3E%3C%2Ful%3E%3Cp%3ESo%20the%20equation%20becomes%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5DPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E0_1%20%7BS%28t%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2866000t%2B38000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B1%7D_%7B0.5%7D%7B%2871000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2866000t%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2838000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B1%7D_%7B0.5%7D%7B%2871000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D8113.7805%2B18764.4669%2B34207.6751%5C%5CPV%3D61085.9225)
So the present value of revenue in the first year is $61,085.92.
b-
The time in which the machine pays for itself is given as

The present value is set equal to the value of machine which is given as
$160,000 so the equation becomes:

So the total time it would take to pay for its price is 2.44 years of 29.33 months.
Answer:
c. Internal Service Fund
Explanation:
Internal Service Fund -
It refers to the sum of amount required to track the motion of any goods and services from one department to another , is referred to as internal service fund .
The amount spend on the internal service fund is used to determine the complete cost of providing the services and goods .
For example , maintenance is an example of the internal service fund .
Hence , from the given information of the question ,
The correct answer is c. Internal Service Fund .
Outstanding shares will be 12,000 shares.
These are calculated as follows:
Here the number of shares are as follows;
Authorized shares are 20,000, Issued shares are 15,000, Treasury shares are 3,000
Therefore, the number of outstanding shares can be calculated as follows
Number of outstanding shares = Issued stock- Treasury stock
= 15,000-3,000
= 12,000
Hence the number of outstanding shares is 12,000
To know more about outstanding shares here:
brainly.com/question/17167434
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Check its weight. Then it will be easier for us