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Katyanochek1 [597]
3 years ago
14

If f(x) = (3+x)/(x-3), what is f(a+2)​

Mathematics
1 answer:
sergey [27]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

To evaluate f(a + 2), substitute x = a + 2 into f(x), that is

f(a + 2) = \frac{3+a+2}{a+2-3} = \frac{5+a}{a-1}

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A company is to hire two employees. They have prepared a final list of eight candidates, all of whom are equally qualified. Of t
Softa [21]

Answer:

i) Probability that both candidates employed are women = 5/14

ii) Probability that the second candidate is a woman = 5/8

iii) Probability that the first candidate is a woman given that second one is a woman = 4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the probability that a man is employed be P(M) = 3/8

Probability that a woman is employed P(W) = 5/8

a) Probability that both candidates employed are women = (5/8) × (4/7) = 5/14

b) Probability that the second candidate is a woman = (probability that first candidate is a man and second candidate is a woman) + (probability that first candidate is a woman & second candidate is a woman)

= (3/8)(5/7) + (5/8)(4/7) = (15/56) + (20/56) = 35/56 = 5/8

c) Probability that the first candidate is a woman given that second one is a woman

Given that the second candidate was a women, means that the first candidate-women was selected among other four women.

Probability = (4/8)/(5/8) = 4/5

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For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
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Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

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