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AysviL [449]
3 years ago
15

Help with this question

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sholpan [36]3 years ago
4 0

With some simplification,

cos⁻¹(x) - 5 cos⁻¹(x) - π/3 = 2π/3

becomes

-4 cos⁻¹(x) = π

or

cos⁻¹(x) = -π/4

However, the inverse cosine function has a range of 0 ≤ cos⁻¹(x) ≤ π, so there are no solutions to this equation.

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