Help with this question

Mathematics

1 answer:

Sholpan [36]3 years ago

4 0

With some simplification,

cos⁻¹(x) - 5 cos⁻¹(x) - π/3 = 2π/3

becomes

-4 cos⁻¹(x) = π

cos⁻¹(x) = -π/4

However, the inverse cosine function has a range of 0 ≤ cos⁻¹(x) ≤ π, so there are no solutions to this equation.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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