All categories

2 years ago

Can someone please help me with this?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Tomtit [17]2 years ago

8 0

Obviously, Ali is correct. Khamis did a mistake, he forgot the negative sign of - 5, when he divided b. He should have let - 5b and divided it by - 5 like ali did.

Good Luck

You might be interested in

Dave can complete a sales route by himself in 4 hours. James can do the same job in 5 hours. How long will it take them to do it

Alexeev081 [22]

We can solve this problem by calculating the individual rate of working and equate it to their total rate of working.

If Dave can complete a sales route in 4 hours, then his working rate is

$\frac{1}{4}$

Also, if James can do it in 5 hours, then his working rate is

$\frac{1}{5}$

Let
$x$
be the hours that both will use to complete the sales route,

Then rate at which both completes this task is
$\frac{1}{x}$

Meaning if we add their individual rates we should get

$\frac{1}{x}$

That is;

$\frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{x}$

The LCM is
$20x$

So let us multiply through with the LCM.

$20x \times \frac{1}{4} + 20x \times \frac{1}{5} =20x \times \frac{1}{x}$

$5x + 4x = 20$

We simplify to get,

$9x = 20$

Dividing through by 9 gives;

$x = \frac{20}{9}$

$x = 2\frac{1}{9}$

Therefore the two will complete sales route in
$2 \frac{1}{9}$
hours.

3 0

3 years ago

What’s the correct answer for this?

forsale [732]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Since two diameters are intersecting eachother, the angles inside them would be vertical angles so they'll be congruent.

m<LYM = m<JYM

Also their arcs would be equal to their angles measures so,

Arc JK = 52°

7 0

2 years ago

Draw a model to represent 42/7

ch4aika [34]

Here is a model I have made (I'm not a great artist). There are 42 circles in total, placed in 7 columns. Each column has 6 circles. This model represents 42/7 by splitting 42 into 7 parts, which are the columns, and showing that each column has 6 circles, which is the answer to 42/7.

7 0

2 years ago

A box contains 11 red chips and 4 blue chips. We perform the following two-step experiment: (1) First, a chip is selected at ran

Scilla [17]

Answer:

P(B1) = (11/15)

P(B2) = (4/15)

P(A) = (11/15)

P(B1|A) = (5/7)

P(B2|A) = (2/7)

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 11 red chips and 4 blue chips in a box. Two chips are selected one after the other at random and without replacement from the box.

B1 is the event that the chip removed from the box at the first step of the experiment is red.

B2 is the event that the chip removed from the box at the first step of the experiment is blue. A is the event that the chip selected from the box at the second step of the experiment is red.

Note that the probability of an event is the number of elements in that event divided by the Total number of elements in the sample space.

P(E) = n(E) ÷ n(S)

P(B1) = probability that the first chip selected is a red chip = (11/15)

P(B2) = probability that the first chip selected is a blue chip = (4/15)

P(A) = probability that the second chip selected is a red chip

P(A) = P(B1 n A) + P(B2 n A) (Since events B1 and B2 are mutually exclusive)

P(B1 n A) = (11/15) × (10/14) = (11/21)

P(B2 n A) = (4/15) × (11/14) = (22/105)

P(A) = (11/21) + (22/105) = (77/105) = (11/15)

P(B1|A) = probability that the first chip selected is a red chip given that the second chip selected is a red chip

The conditional probability, P(X|Y) is given mathematically as

P(X|Y) = P(X n Y) ÷ P(Y)

So, P(B1|A) = P(B1 n A) ÷ P(A)

P(B1 n A) = (11/15) × (10/14) = (11/21)

P(A) = (11/15)

P(B1|A) = (11/21) ÷ (11/15) = (15/21) = (5/7)

P(B2|A) = probability that the first chip selected is a blue chip given that the second chip selected is a red chip

P(B2|A) = P(B2 n A) ÷ P(A)

P(B2 n A) = (4/15) × (11/14) = (22/105)

P(A) = (11/15)

P(B2|A) = (22/105) ÷ (11/15) = (2/7)

Hope this Helps!!!

5 0

3 years ago

Find the simple interest on a $340 loan at a 15% annual interest rate for 1<br> year

Crank

Answer:

$51.

Step-by-step explanation:

Interest I = PRT/100 where P = amount of the loan , R = rate and T = the times in years.

I = 340 * 15 * 1 / 100

= 5100/100

= $51.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers