Answer:
59% - a)increase - b)decrease
Explanation:
First of all, we should say that the real exchange rate is calculated by multiplying the nominal exchange rate for the price index and then divide it by the price index of the other country. In another language, using this case as the example, the first nominal exchange rate is 50, as you need 50 rupees to buy 1 dollar. So to calculate the real exchange rate you need to multiply 50 by 100 (the price index of USA) and then divide it by 100 (the price index of India). Note that both price indexes are 100, just a coincidence for making easier the question. Result: 50.
Then we calculate the next real exchange rate: multiply 60 (the new nominal exchange rate) by 106 (the new US price index) and divide by 80 (the new India price index). This throws a result of 79,5. We see a 29,5 increase, and 29,5 represents 59% of 50 (the initial real exchange rate).
Then both questions is more common sense than the reading of the results we just calculated. For example, nominal exchange rate changed from 50 to 60, so the people in India will now have to collect 10 more rupees to buy the same dollar. Let's suppose a pair of shoes in USA costs 40 dollars. Before, Indians needed 2000 rupees to buy it. Now they will need 2400 rupees... it will be more expensive. Plus, the prices of USA had gone up 6%, which means the pair of shoes will now cost 42,4 dollars... even more expensive! As products in USA are more expensive, we can expect that India's consumption of American goods will decrease (law of demand).
With the American consumption of Indian goods happens the opposite, the goods in India became cheaper (price index has fallen), and for the Americans, the same dollars they had will buy more rupees when the exchange rate changed to 60.
Answer:
Option (c) $141,818
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Number of common stocks issued = 5,000
Value of common stock = $25 par value
Number of preferred stocks issued = 7,500
Value of preferred stock = $20 par value
Lump sum value of total shares issued = $260,000
Now,
Fair value of the preferred stocks = 7,500 × $20
= $150,000
Fair value of the common stocks = 5,000 × $25
= $125,000
Thus,
Total value of the stocks issued = $150,000 + $125,000
= $275,000
Therefore,
Proceeds allocated to the preferred stock
= Lump sum value × [ Fair value of the preferred stocks ÷ value of the stocks ]
= $260,000 × [ $150,000 ÷ $275,000 ]
= $141,818.18 ≈ $141,818
Hence,
Option (c) $141,818
Answer:
keep producing as variable costs are being met.
Explanation:
A firm should shutdown in the short run if price is less than average variable cost. But since price is greater than the average variable cost, the firm should keep producing in the short run.
I hope my answer helps you
Answer:
B) Country A uses fewer resources to produce corn than Country B does.
Explanation:
An absolute advantage is a situation where a country or a company can produce some goods and services using fewer inputs compared to competitors. The company can produce more quantity of using the same amount of inputs than others. A country with an absolute advantage will manufacture a product at a lower cost than other countries or companies.
Absolute advantage enables companies and countries to gain from trade. Through specialization, a company will focus on what it can produce at a lower cost than others, and sell it. Country A has an absolute advantage if it can produce corn at a lower cost than country B.
The various functions of MNC are:
Promotion of foreign investment.
Technology transfer.
Promotion of exports.
Investment in infrastructure.
