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Anna [14]
3 years ago
6

Beginning inventory, purchases and sales data for T-shirts are as follows:

Business
1 answer:
Karolina [17]3 years ago
5 0

Based on the First In; First Out method of inventory management, the ending inventory is <u>$180.</u>

FIFO means that the earlier stock is sold off first. This means that the sale on April 14 was based on the beginning inventory first and then the Purchase on the 11.

Stock on April 14:

<em>= Beginning stock + Purchases - Sale</em>

= 24 + 26 - 36

= 14 units at $12 each

Stock at 25th:

<em>= Remaining April 11 purchases + April 21 Purchases - Sales</em>

= 14 + 18 - 20

= 12 units at $15

Ending inventory:

= 7 x 12

= $180

In conclusion, closing inventory is $180.

<em>Find out more at brainly.com/question/18761943. </em>

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Barron's has collected data on the top 1,000 financial advisers. Company A and Company B have many of their advisers on this lis
scoray [572]

Answer:

We'll start by putting into consideration, the large sample variance at the numerator.

Barron's Variance will be represented using 1 as the subscript.

i.e.

1 = $583 million

2 = $489 million

So,

0: 1²= 2²

: 1² ≠ 2²

=1² / 2²=

= $583 million² / $489 million²

= 583²/489²

= 1.42

Degrees of freedom 15 and 9

Using F table, area in tail is greater than 0.10.

Two-tail p-value is greater than .20

Exact p-value corresponding to F= 1.42 is .5874 (See F table)

p-value > .10

So,we do not reject 0.

We cannot conclude there is a statistically significant difference between the variances for the two companies.

4 0
4 years ago
Splish Brothers Inc. issues $257,000, 10-year, 8% bonds at 99. Prepare the journal entry to record the sale of these bonds on Ma
klemol [59]

Answer:

Dr Cash 254,430

Dr Discount on bonds payable 2,570

Cr Bonds payable 257,000

Explanation:

Preparation of the journal entry to record the sale of these bonds on March 1, 2022

Based on the information given we were told that Brothers Inc. issues the amount of $257,000 that includes 10-year and 8% bonds at 99 which means that the journal entry to record the sale of these bonds on March 1, 2022 will be :

March 1, 2022

Dr Cash 254,430

(257,000*99%)

Dr Discount on bonds payable 2,570

([$257,000*(100%-99%)]

Cr Bonds payable 257,000

(Being to record the sale of bonds)

8 0
3 years ago
Whoever answers first gets 50 points
zhuklara [117]

Answer:

i like ya cut g

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
1.Here are data on two companies. The T-bill rate is 4% and the market risk premium is 6%.
kenny6666 [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

1.

According to the CAPM model

Fair return = Risk-free rate of return + (Beta × Market Premium)

For $1 discount store:

Expected return = 4% +(1.5 × 6%)

Expected return = 0.04 + (1.5 × 0.06)

Expected return = 0.04 + 0.09

Expected return = 0.13

Expected return = 13%

For everything $5

Expected Return = 4% + (1 × 6%)

Expected return =  0.04 + (1 × 0.06)

Expected return = 0.04 + 0.06

Expected return = 0.10

Expected return = 10%

2.

From the above calculation;

For $1 discount store:

Since the expected return is greater than the forecasted return at 12%.

Thus, it is overpriced.

For everything $5

Here, it is obvious from the above calculation that the expected return is lesser than the forecasted return at 11%.

Therefore, it is underpriced.

3) Beta can be defined as the security change that takes place due to market functuations. Thus, Beta manages the systematic risk associated with firms. From the information given, Kaskin Inc. has a more systematic risk(beta) than Quinn Inc. Thus, option A is the most accurate.

4)

To first find the growth rate by using CAPM model.

Required return = Risk free return + \beta (market return - risk free return)

Required return = 0.08 + 1(0.18 - 0.08)

Required return = 18%

Using the formula:

Required return = (next year dividend/current price) + growth rate

18% = (9/100) + g

0.18 = 0.09 g

g = 0.09

Growth rate g = 9%

To determine the price at year 1; we have:

= year \ 1 \  dividend \times \dfrac{1+g}{ke-g}

= 9 \times \dfrac{1+0.09}{0.18 - 0.09}

= $109.00

Therefore, the investor can earn a profit of $9 after selling the stock for $109 at the end of the year 1.

5.

According to beta

For portfolio A.

Risk premium per unit = (21 - 8)%/1.3

Risk premium per unit = (0.21 - 0.08)/1.3

Risk premium per unit = 0.1

Risk premium per unit = 10%

For portfolio B.

Risk premium per unit = (17 - 8)%/0.7

Risk premium per unit = (0.17 - 0.08)/0.7

Risk premium per unit = 0.1286

Risk premium per unit = 12.86%

From above, it is clear that the risk associated with portfolio B is lesser compared to portfolio A.

Thus; the correct option is b. A; B

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