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Nadusha1986 [10]
3 years ago
8

A company switched from the cash basis to the accrual basis for recognizing warranty expense. The unrecorded liability for warra

nties was $2 million at the beginning of the year. Its tax rate is 30%. The company booked a year-end warranty liability of $3 million.
1. As a result of this change, the firm would ___________.
Business
2 answers:
Murrr4er [49]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Report a prior period adjustment decreasing retained earnings by $1,365,000.

Explanation:

Going by the question we can derive that $2,100,000 is the prior period's warranty. Consequently, it will be charged to the current year's earnings following the deduction of tax, 35%.

(2,100,000 *65) /100 = $1,365,000

This above calculation is so because Under the accrual basis of accounting...operating expense are reported on the income statement in the particular period when they took place or when they expire

Lana71 [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

B.Report a prior period adjustment decreasing retained earnings by $1,400,000

Explanation:

Unrecorded liability for warranties was $2 million at the beginning of the year × Its tax rate is 30%.

$2,000,000 ×30%

=$600,000

$ 2,000,000-$600,000

=$1,400,000

Therefore a result of this change, the firm would report a prior period adjustment decreasing retained earnings by $1,400,000 because net income often increases Retained Earnings, while net losses and dividends decrease Retained Earnings due to the fact that any items that push net income higher or lower will ultimately affect retained earnings.

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Suppose that the European Union is now experiencing a recession. Its actual real GDP is €200 billion, and the estimate of its po
jek_recluse [69]

Answer and Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,

The central bank have various tools to apply expansionary policy and these tools are :

- Reserve ratio.

- Discount rate.

- Open market operations.

The open market operations include the buying and selling of government owned securities by central bank to impact the monetary base in the economy. In case of any recession, the central bank should purchase government securities to enhance the money supply. Because whenever they do any kind of open market purchase there would definitely be increase in money in the economy. That's why increment in money supply decrease the interest rate in economy.

Nominal interest rate is the cost of borrowing so if there is decrement in interest rate, there would be consumption and investment activities. these both are the component of aggregate demand so the aggregate demand will increase, and this increment in aggregate demand helps the economy to recover in the situation of recession.

6 0
3 years ago
How much must harry's hardware deposit at a 14.5% annual interest for 240 days in order to earn $500 in simple interest?
marissa [1.9K]

To get the formula for the principal, we will use the formula for the interest and derived it from there:

I = Prt is the equation then it will be P = I /rt since we are looking for the principal.

 

P = I /rt

 

= $500 / (0.145 x 240/360)

 

= $500 / 0.0967

 

= $5170.63

 

To check:

I = Prt

 

= $5170.3 x 0.145 x 240/360

 

= $499.8 or $500

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Through a comparable company analysis for Alibaba, you determined a P/E ratio of 6.0x is appropriate to value the company. Based
Verizon [17]

Answer:

$740,366

Explanation:

The computation of the enterprise value is given below:

P/E ratio = Market Capitalization ÷ Earnings

6 = Market Capitalization ÷ $149,680

Market Capitalization is

= 6 × $149,680

= $898,080

Now,

Enterprise Value = Market Capitalization + Market Value of Debt - Cash & Cash Equivalents.

= $898,080 - $157,714

= $740,366

3 0
3 years ago
You are saving money for a down payment on a new house. You intend to place $7,500 at the end of each year for three years into
blondinia [14]

Answer:

you earn  7,510

Explanation:

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3 years ago
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Calculate free cash flow for 2017 for Monarch Textiles, Inc., based on the financial information that follows. Assume that all c
ozzi

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

Computation of free cash flow for Monach textiles, 2017

EBIT = EBT + Interest expense EBIT

EBIT = $408 + $50

EBIT = $458

Tax rate = Tax / EBT

Tax rate = $163.20 / $408

Tax rate = 0.4 = 40%

Operating cash flow = EBIT × (1 - Tax rate) + Depreciation - Change in net working capital - Capital expenditure

= $458 × (1 - 0.4) + $82 - ($640 - $360) - ($460 - $280)

= $274.8 + $82 - $280 - $180

= $274.8 + $92 - $100

= $256.8

5 0
2 years ago
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