Answer:
Explanation:
FV $200,000.00
time 5 years
rate 0.1% = 10/100 = 0.10
C $ 32,759.496
The installment will generate 10% interest overtime and provide with a 200,000 dollar count after six years
$12120 is the annual amortization expense
<u>Explanation:</u>
The following formula is used to calculate the annual depreciation expense that will be recorded in the books of accounts
Depreciation = ( cost of the asset minus salvage value) divide by number of years.
Given data in the question: number of years = 10, cost of the asset = $124000, salvage value = $28000
Putting the figures in the formula,
Depreciation expense = ($124000 minus $28000) divide by 10
After solving, we get = $12120
Thus, annual depreciation expense = $12120
Answer:
$574.71 billion.
Explanation:
The formula for calculating amount of deposits is as follows:

where,
D = Deposits
rr = required reserve rate
ER/D = excess reserve rate
C/D = non-bank currency to deposits

D = 574.712644
D = 574.71
Therefore, the amount of deposits is $574.71 billion.
Answer:
Market Price $985.01
Explanation:
We have to convert the US semiannually rate to annually.

Now this is the annual rate spected for a similar US Bonds
So we are going to calculate the present value using this rate.
Present value of an annuity of 78 for 20 years at 7.9521%


PV = 768.55
And we need to add the present value ofthe 1,000 euros at this rate


Present Value = 216.4602211
Adding those two values together
$985.01
The reasoning behind this is that an american investor will prefer at equal price an US bonds because it compounds interest twice a year over the German Bonds.