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Alex
3 years ago
8

2. Using 50 for the number of weeks in a year is a(n) exponent

Mathematics
1 answer:
Paladinen [302]3 years ago
6 0

There are 52 weeks in a year.

Using 50 for the number of weeks in a year is a(n) round.

Rounding is a process which we  approximate the known  number by just scaling it up or down.

In rounding the numbers less than 5 are scaled to one number less than the  given integer and numbers such as 5 or above than 5 are scaled a number greater than the given number .

For example if there were 55 or more than  weeks in a year we can say there are approximately 60 weeks in a year.

But there are 52 weeks so we <u><em>round</em></u> it to 50 weeks as 2 is less than 5.

brainly.com/question/9165533

brainly.com/question/10605353

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A high school principal wishes to estimate how well his students are doing in math. Using 40 randomly chosen tests, he finds tha
ollegr [7]

Answer:

99% confidence interval for the population proportion of passing test scores is [0.5986 , 0.9414].

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a high school principal wishes to estimate how well his students are doing in math.

Using 40 randomly chosen tests, he finds that 77% of them received a passing grade.

Firstly, the pivotal quantity for 99% confidence interval for the population proportion is given by;

                          P.Q. = \frac{\hat p-p}{\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } }  ~ N(0,1)

where, \hat p = sample proportion of students received a passing grade = 77%

           n = sample of tests = 40

           p = population proportion

<em>Here for constructing 99% confidence interval we have used One-sample z proportion test statistics.</em>

So, 99% confidence interval for the population proportion, p is ;

P(-2.5758 < N(0,1) < 2.5758) = 0.99  {As the critical value of z at 0.5%

                                           level of significance are -2.5758 & 2.5758}  

P(-2.5758 < \frac{\hat p-p}{\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } } < 2.5758) = 0.99

P( -2.5758 \times {\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } } < {\hat p-p} < 2.5758 \times {\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } } ) = 0.99

P( \hat p-2.5758 \times {\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } } < p < \hat p+2.5758 \times {\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } } ) = 0.99

<u>99% confidence interval for p</u> = [\hat p-2.5758 \times {\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } } , \hat p+2.5758 \times {\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } }]

 = [ 0.77-2.5758 \times {\sqrt{\frac{0.77(1-0.77)}{40} } } , 0.77+2.5758 \times {\sqrt{\frac{0.77(1-0.77)}{40} } } ]

 = [0.5986 , 0.9414]

Therefore, 99% confidence interval for the population proportion of passing test scores is [0.5986 , 0.9414].

Lower bound of interval = 0.5986

Upper bound of interval = 0.9414

6 0
3 years ago
Divide 405 in the ratio 4:11​
Mariulka [41]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer is in the photo

Hope it helllps

Good luck

4 0
3 years ago
Perform the indicated operation.<br> 6/8 - 3/8
Maru [420]

Answer:

3/8

Step-by-step explanation:

(3/8) Since they have the same denominator, you can subtract the second numerator from the first so 6 minus 3 is 3. So 3/8

3 0
4 years ago
Linear Algebra question! Please help!
kozerog [31]

Answers:

  1. false
  2. false
  3. true
  4. false
  5. True

==================================================

Explanation:

Problem 1

This is false because the A and B should swap places. It should be (AB)^{-1} = B^{-1}A^{-1}.

The short proof is to multiply AB with its inverse (AB)^{-1}  and we get: (AB)*(AB)^{-1} = (AB)*(B^{-1}A^{-1}) = A(B*B^{-1})*A^{-1} = A*A^{-1} = I

The fact we get the identity matrix proves that we have the proper order at this point. The swap happens so that B matches up its corresponding inverse B^{-1} and the two cancel each other out.

Keep in mind matrix multiplication is <u>not</u> commutative. So AB is not the same as BA.

-------------------------

Problem 2

This statement is true if and only if AB = BA

(A+B)^2 = (A+B)(A+B)

(A+B)^2 = A(A+B) + B(A+B)

(A+B)^2 = A^2 + AB + BA + B^2

(A+B)^2 = A^2 + 2AB + B^2 ... only works if AB = BA

However, in most general settings, matrix multiplication is <u>not</u> commutative. The order is important when multiplying most two matrices. Only for special circumstances is when AB = BA going to happen. In general,  AB = BA is false which is why statement two breaks down and is false in general.

-------------------------

Problem 3

This statement is true.

If A and B are invertible, then so is AB.

This is because both A^{-1} and B^{-1} are known to exist (otherwise A and B wouldn't be invertible) and we can use the rule mentioned in problem 1. Make sure to swap the terms of course.

Or you can use a determinant argument to prove the claim

det(A*B) = det(A)*det(B)

Since A and B are invertible, their determinants det(A) and det(B) are nonzero which makes the right hand side nonzero. Therefore det(A*B) is nonzero and AB has an inverse.

So if we have two invertible matrices, then their product is also invertible. This idea can be scaled up to include things like A^4*B^3 being also invertible.

If you wanted, you can carefully go through it like this:

  1. If A and B are invertible, then so is AB
  2. If A and AB are invertible, then so is A*AB = A^2B
  3. If A and A^2B are invertible, then so is A*A^2B = A^3B

and so on until you build up to A^4*B^3. Therefore, we can conclude that A^m*B^n is also invertible. Be careful about the order of multiplying the matrices. Something like A*AB is different from AB*A, the first of which is useful while the second is not.

So this is why statement 3 is true.

-------------------------

Problem 4

This is false. Possibly a quick counter-example is to consider these two matrices

A = \begin{bmatrix}1 & 0\\0 & 1\end{bmatrix} \text{ and } B = \begin{bmatrix}-1 & 0\\0 & -1\end{bmatrix}

both of which are invertible since their determinant is nonzero (recall the determinant of a diagonal matrix is simply the product along the diagonal entries). So it's not too hard to show that the determinant of each is 1, and each matrix shown is invertible.

However, adding those two mentioned matrices gets us the 2x2 zero matrix, which is a matrix of nothing but zeros. Clearly the zero matrix has determinant zero and is therefore not invertible.

There are some cases when A+B may be invertible, but it's not true in general.

-------------------------

Problem 5

This is true because each A pairs up with an A^{-1} to cancel out (similar what happened with problem 1). For more info, check out the concept of diagonalization.

5 0
2 years ago
MATH WHIZZES, GET OVER HERE PLEASE!! I ACTUALLY NEED HELP ON THIS QUESTION!!! IT IS NOT A JOKE!!!
dimulka [17.4K]

Answer:

1130040

Step-by-step explanation:

so what your going to do is it sounds like 3 turns = 3 hours so 1 turn= 1 year so theres 8760 hours in a year so thats going to be 8760 turns now multiply thar by 129 and you get your awnser.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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