when
is removed from the expression derived by the mean value theorem.
Let be
, for
, according to the mean value theorem, also known as Rolle theorem, there is a value
so that:
(1)
Where:
- First derivative evaluated at
.
- Function evaluated at zero.
Then, we simplify the expression below:


Please that
is equalized to
because of
. If we eliminate
, then we find that
.
We kindly invite to check this question on mean value theorem: brainly.com/question/3957181