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3 years ago

when a manufacturer sells its products directly to consumers, it engages in which two supply-chain activities?

1 answer:

8 0

Based on components of Supply Chain Management, when a manufacturer sells its products directly to consumers, it engages in Source and Delivers supply-chain activities.

This is because Supply Chain activities is divided into five components.

The Source component is how firms or companies look for buyers, vendors, or consumers to buy their products directly.

Also, the Deliver component is by which the company delivers the products purchased by vendors, buyers, or consumers directly to them without intermediaries.

Other components of Supply Chain activities include the following:

Plan;
Make;
Return

Hence, in this case, it is concluded that the correct answer is Source and Deliver.

Learn more here: brainly.com/question/18793688

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Who develops the configuration and validation requirements for it products and services within dod?

bagirrra123 [75]

The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Networks and Information Integration also known as the DOD Chief Information Officer is responsible for that. The Assistant Secretary of Defense for Networks and Information Integration is in charge of managing all DOD information technology even national security systems and serves as the Chief Information Officer.

4 0

3 years ago

Bauer Software's current balance sheet shows total common equity of $5,125,000. The company has 300,000 shares of stock outstand

Umnica [9.8K]

Answer:

The answer is $10.42 per share

Explanation:

Book value per share is the value placed on a share as shown in the book (Financial statement of the company) while market value per share is the value viewed by the public.

Common equity = $5,125,000

Outstanding shares = 300,000 shares

Book value per share = common equity/outstanding shares

$5,125,000/300,000 shares

= $17.08 per share

Market price is $27.50 per share

Therefore, the difference is :

$27.50 - $17.08

= $10.42 per share

6 0

3 years ago

We observe the following annualized yields on four Treasury securities: (75%)

Anon25 [30]

Answer:

Explanation:

From the given information;

The spot rate for maturity at 0.5 year $(X_1) = 4\%/2 = 2\%$

The spot rate for maturity at 1 year is:

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1000 + 22.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

= $\dfrac{22.5}{(1+0.02)}+ \dfrac{1022.5}{(1+X_2)^2}=1000$

By solving for $X_2$ ;

$X_2$ = 2.253%

The spot rate for maturity at 1.5 years is:

$= \dfrac{25}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{25}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{1000 + 25}{(1+X_3)^3}=1000$

Solving for $X_3$

$X_3$ = 2.510%

The spot rate for maturity at 2 years is:

$= \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_1)}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_2)^2}+ \dfrac{27.5}{(1+X_3)^3} +\dfrac{1000+27.5}{(1+X_4)^4} =1000$

By solving for $X_4$ ;

$X_4$ = 2.770%

Recall that:

Coupon rate = yield to maturity for par bond.

Thus, the annual coupon rates are 4%, 4.5%, 5%, and 5.5% for 0.5, 1, 1.5, 2 years respectively.

For n years, the price of n-bond is:

$= \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 1}{1+X_1}+ \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ 2}{(1+X_2)^2}+... + \dfrac{cash \ flow \ at \ year \ b}{(1+X_n)^n}$

Thus, for 2 years bond implies 4 periods;

∴

$= \dfrac{40}{1+0.02}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.02253)^2} + \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0252)^3}+ \dfrac{40}{(1+0.0277)^4}$

= $1047.024

Suppose there exist no-arbitrage, then the price is:

$= \dfrac{0}{(1+0.02)}+\dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02253)^2}$

= 956.4183

Since the market price < arbitrage price.

We then consider 0.5, 1-year bonds from the portfolio

Now;

weight 2 × 1000 + weight 2 × 22.5 = 1000

weight 2 × 1022.5 = 1000

weight 2 = 1022.5/1000

weight 2 = 0.976

weight 1 + weight 2 = 1

weight 1 = 1 - weight 2

weight 1 = 1 - 0.976

weight 1 = 0.022

The price of a 0.5-year bond will be:

$= \dfrac{1000}{(1+0.02\%)} \\ \\ =\mathbf{980.39}$

The price of a 1-year bond will be = 1000

Market value on the bond portfolio = 0.022 × price of 0.5 bond + 0.978 × price 1-year bond = 956.42

= 0.022 × 980.39 + 0.978 × 1000

= 956.42

So, to have arbitrage profit, the investor needs to purchase 1 unit of the 1-year zero-coupon bond as well as 0.022 units of the 0.5-year bond. Then sell 0.978 unit of the 1-year bond.

Then will he be able to have an arbitrage profit of $56.42

The one-period ahead forward rates can be computed as follows:

Foward rate from 0 to 0.5 $X_1$ = 2%

Foward rate from 0.5 to 1

$(1+X_2)^2 = (1+X_1) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )$

$(1+0.0225)^2 = (1+0.02) \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 0.5 \ to \ 1 )$

Foward rate from 0.5 to 1 = 2.5%

Foward rate from 1 to 1.5

$(1+X_3)^3 = (1+X_2)^2 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )$

$(1+0.0251)^3 = (1+0.0225)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1 \ to \ 1.5 )$

Foward rate from 1 to 1.5 =3.021%

Foward rate from 1.5 to 2

$(1+X_4)^4 = (1+X_3)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )$

$(1+0.0277)^4 = (1+0.0251)^3 \times (1+ Foward \ rate \ from \ 1.5 \ to \ 2 )$

Foward rate from 1.5 to 2 =3.021%

The expected price of the bond if the hypothesis hold :

= $\dfrac{40}{1+ 0.03021}+ \dfrac{1000+40}{(1+0.03285)^2}$

$= \dfrac{40}{(1.03021)}+ \dfrac{1040}{(1.03285)^2}}$

= 1013.724254

= 1013.72

4 0

3 years ago

A trader creates a long butterfly spread from options with strike prices $60, $65, and $70 by trading a total of 400 options. Th

malfutka [58]

Answer:

$400

Explanation:

From the question, there is a butterfly spread when a trader buys 100 options with strike prices $60 and $70 and sells 200 options with strike price $65.

The maximum gain is the point where both the stock price and the middle strike price are equal, i.e. equal to $65. At that point, the options payoffs are respectively $500, 0, and 0. By implication, the total payoff is $500.

The set up cost of the butterfly spread can be calculated as follows:

Setup cost = ($11×100) + ($18×100) – ($14×200)

= 1,100 + 1,800 – 2,800

Setup cost = $100

Net gain = Options payoffs – Setup cost = $500 - $100 = $400

Therefore, the maximum net gain (after the cost of the options is taken into account) is $400.

3 0

4 years ago

You are buying and reselling items found at your local thrift shop. You found an antique pitcher for sale. If you need a 27% mar

GrogVix [38]

Answer:

The most you can pay for the pitcher is $17.32

Explanation:

A mark up is a percentage that is always applied on the cost to come up at a required gain over cost. The cost is always taken to be 100% when apply a mark up on cost.

If the mark up is of 27% and cost is 100% then a selling price of 22 will be equal to cost + markup.

Let cost be x.

Selling price = Cost + Mark up

22 = 100% * x + 27% * x

22 = 1x + 0.27x

22 = 1.27 x

22/1.27 = x

x = $17.3228 rounded off to $17.32

7 0

4 years ago