The average rates of change of f(x) and their corresponding intervals are given as:
Interval Rate of Change
[-5, -1] -8
[-4, -1] -7
[-3, 1] -4
[-2, 1] -3.
<h3>What is the explanation for the above?
</h3>
Step 1 - See Table Attached
Step 2 - State the formula for rate of change
The formula for rate of change is given as:
= [change in f(x)] / [change in x]
a) For interval [5, -1] ⇒
Rate of Change - [ f(1) - f(-5) ] / [-1 - (-5)]
= [-1 - 35] / [-1+5]
= -36 / 4
= - 8
b) For interval [-4, -1] ⇒
rate of change = [ f(-1) - f(-4) ] / [ -1 - (-4) ]
= [3 - 24] / [-1 + 4]
= -21/3
= - 7
c) interval [-3,1] ⇒
rate of change = [ f(1) - f(-3) ] / [ 1 - (-3) ]
= [-1 - 15] / [1 + 3]
= -16/4
= - 4
d) interval [-2,1] ⇒
rate of change = [f (1) - f(-2)] / [1 - (-2)]
= [ -1 - 8] / [1 + 2]
= -9/3
= -3
Learn more about rate of change at:
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There both being multiplied by 5
ln(x−7)==4/3
To solve for x, rewrite the equation using properties of logarithms.
e^ln(x−7) =e^4/3
Solve for x
x=e^4/3 + 7
The result can be shown in multiple forms.
Exact Form:
x= e^4/3+7
Decimal Form:
x=10.79366789
<span>Outcome Bag of Gold Magic Wand
Relative frequency 0.32 0.68
</span><span>The relative frequency of getting a bag of gold is .......... reasonably close
</span>
.32 is close to 30% so
<span>Alison's claim about the theoretical probability is likely to be 2............true
Further, this means that the theoretical probability of getting a magic wand is most likely 3............1 - 30% = 70%</span>
Answer:
the last one go to the first one , the first one go to the last one , the secoind go the third one , and the thrid one go to the thrid one sry if i am wrong
Step-by-step explanation:
