Answer:
d) overapplied $160
Explanation:
$35,000 expected overhead / 5,000 machine= 7 dollar per machine hour are spend on overhead
<em><u>applied overhead:</u></em>
4,980 x 7 = 34,860
<u><em>actual overehad:</em></u> 34,700
As the amount of cost enter by the accounting are above the real cost, we are going to increase the manufacturing overhead cost and making the net income lower for this particular reason.
The answer is $48.
The seller of product a has no idle capacity and can sell all it can produce at $60 per unit. outlay (variable) cost is $12. $48 is the opportunity cost, assuming the seller sells internally
It is calculated as follows:
Opportunity cost= Production cost- Outlay cost
= 60-12
=$48
Opportunity costs represent the potential benefits which any individual or investor, or any business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.
Because the opportunity costs are generally unseen by definition, they can be easily overlooked. Understanding of the potential missed opportunities when any business or any individual chooses one investment over another investment allows for better decision making.
To know more about opportunity cost here:
brainly.com/question/13036997
#SPJ4
Answer:
The correct statement is C. This statement is misleading because a no-load fund cannot charge more than 25 basis points of 12b-1 fees
Explanation:
THIS STATEMENT IS MISLEADING BECAUSE A NO-LOAD FUND CANNOT CHARGE MORE THAN 25 BASIS POINTS OF 12B-1 FEES.
A mutual fund is not permitted to advertise itself as a "no-load" fund if it charges 12b-1 fees of more than .25% (25 basis points) annually. 12b-1 fees are charges against net asset value that pay for the cost of soliciting new investment to the fund, and they can be used to compensate salespersons that sell the fund's shares.
