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Pepsi [2]
2 years ago
12

Refer to Table 16-2. What is the concentration ratio for Industry M? a. about 52% b. about 22% c. about 96% d. about 40%

Business
1 answer:
Harlamova29_29 [7]2 years ago
3 0

The concentration ratio for Industry M is 52%.

The concentration ratio of industry M can be determined by adding the the ratio of the output to the total output of  each of the six firms together.

  • Ratio of firm 1's output to total output = 22,987 / 198,400 = 0.11586 = 11.59%
  • Ratio of firm 2's output to total output = 21,444 / 198,400 =  0.1081 = 10.81%
  • Ratio of firm 3's output to total output = 18,787 / 198,400 = 0.0947 = 9.47%
  • Ratio of firm 4's output to total output = 16,454 / 198,400 = 0.0829 = 8.29%
  • Ratio of firm 5's output to total output = 12,890 / 198,400 = 0.065 = 6.5%
  • Ratio of firm 6's output to total output = 22,987 / 198,400 = 0.0506 = 5.06%

Sum of the percentages = 51.72%

Please find attached a table used to answer the question. A similar question was answered here: brainly.com/question/14903886

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On October 15, 2020, the board of directors of Ensor Materials Corporation approved a stock option plan for key executives. On J
SashulF [63]

Answer:

1. The Ensor's stock measurement date is January 01, 2021

2. Compensation expense for the stock option is $50 million

3. Please see journal entry in the explanation below.

Explanation:

1. It was clearly indicated in the question that on January 1, 2021 , 32 million stock options were granted hence measurement date is ; 1st of January, 2021

2. The fair value per stock option is $6

Therefore, total compensation expenses = $6 × 25 million

= $150 million

Since the options are exerciseable between 01/01/2024 and 01/01/2026

The period for vesting will be 3 years from 01/01/2021 - 31/12/2023

Therefore, the compensation expense for the stock option in year 2021 = Total compensation expense/ Vesting period

= $150 million /3

= $50 million

3. Since 2.6 million(10%) were forfeited, 90% represent the remaining unforfeited. I. e (100%-10%)=90%

In 2022, which is the second year of the vesting period, compensation expense would be;

Compensation expense of 2022 = (Total compensation expense * 90% * the order of the period / Number of period - Compensation expense of

2021

= $150 million *90% *2/3 - $50 million

=$40 million.

In 2023,

Dr Cr

Compensation expense. $40 million

Paid in capital stock options. $40 million

4 0
3 years ago
The Sports Warehouse operates in two distinct segments; equipment and apparel. The income statements for each operating segment
tatuchka [14]

Answer:

1.

Vertical analysis of The Sports Warehouse's two operating segments.

                                         Equipment                 Apparel

                                       Amount$       %        Amount$        %

sales                                1,700,000   100       2,850,000     100

Cost of goods sold         1,100,000    64.7     1,400,000      49.1

Gross profit                     600,000     35.3     1,450,000       50.9      

Operating expenses      250,000      14.7      500,000         17.5

operating income           350,000      20.6     950,000        33.3

other income/expenses 25,000        1.50      (60,000)         2.1

income before tax          375,000       22.1      890,000        31.22

income tax expense       90,000        5.30     280,000        9.8

net income                      285,000      16.8      610,000        21.4

2.

The a) Apparel segment is more profitable than the b) Equipment segment

Explanation:

1.

Vertical analysis ios made by taking a percentage of each lsited items of income statement to a base value. Normally the base value is the sales value. In this question I have calculated all the percentage based on the sales value.

2.

Gross Margin

By comparing the Gross margin of both segments, 50.9% of apparel is more than that of 35.3% of Equipment. So, Apparel segment is more profitable.

Net Margin

By comparing the Net margin of both segments, 21.4% of apparel is more than that of 16.8% of Equipment. So, Apparel segment is more profitable.

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the most important reason financial information is provided by the major regulatory agencies to investors, depositors, a
sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

d. to make informed decisions about Banks and their financial condition.

Explanation:

Financial regulatory agencies are saddled with the responsibility of providing financial supervision and regulations to Banks and financial institutions. They also maintain integrity in the financial system inorder to boost the confidence of investors, creditors, depositors and the general public.

However, one of the major reasons why financial information is provided by the regulatory agencies to investor, creditors and depositors is to make informed decisions about Banks and their financial conditions.

This means that various groups that have interest in Banks and financial institution are kept abreast of happenings in the financial sector of the economy and are able to know which bank and financial institution is healthy in terms of finances and to know where to invest subsequently.

3 0
3 years ago
A replacement analysis is most objectively conducted from the viewpoint of:
mixer [17]
From the viewpoint of an outsider, an non-owner and an consultant which is a replacement analysis is most objectively conducted. When you are conducting a replacement analysis the most objectively conducted is from the view point of the three which is from an outsider, an consultant and an non-owner.
6 0
3 years ago
The Good Chocolate Company makes a variety of chocolate candies, including a 12-ounce chocolate bar (340 grams) and a box of six
joja [24]

Answer:

A) ≈ 3.509 grams

B) The process is not capable because the lowest Cpk which is 1.89 ≈ 1.9 is far from the ideal 1.33 capability index number ( NO )

c) 1.051 ounces

Explanation:

A) The largest standard deviation ( in grams)

This can be calculated applying the capability index formula and according to the capability index formula the value at which a process is capable is at  : 1.33

hence the largest standard deviation =  upper limit - lower limit / 6 * 1.33

 ( 354 - 326 ) / 7.98 = 3.5087 ≈ 3.509 grams

B) we first calculate the process mean and std of the box

standard deviation = \sqrt{variance }

std of the six-bar box = \sqrt{6*0.86^2}  = 2.106

process mean = 6 * ( 1.03 * 28.33) = 175.079

the mean is not centered between the upper specification and the lower specification hence we will apply the formulae used in calculating the capability index for an uncentered process

Cpk = (upper value - process mean) / (3 * std of box),

         = (187 - 175.079) / ( 3 * 2.106) = 11.921 / 6.318 = 1.89

Cpk =  (process mean -  lower value ) / (3*std of box)

       = ( 175.079 - 153 ) / (3 * 2.106) = 22.079 / 6.318 = 3.49

The process is not capable because the lowest Cpk which is 1.89 ≈ 1.9 is far from the ideal 1.33 capability index number ( N0 )

c ) lowest setting

calculate the value of the mean using capability index of 1.33

Cpk = (upper value - mean ) / 3 * std

mean = 187 - 1.33 * 3 * 2.106

           = 187 - 8.40 = 178.60 grams

Cpk = ( process mean - lower value ) / 3 * std

 mean = 1.33 * 3 * 2.106 + 153

            = 8.40 + 153 = 161.40 grams

the lowest setting in ounces

= 178.60 / ( 6 bar * 28 .33)

= 178.60 / 169.98 = 1.051 ounces

5 0
3 years ago
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