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satela [25.4K]
3 years ago
13

The difference between the actual allocation base​ (actual quantity) and the amount of the allocation base that should have been

used​ (standard quantity) times the standard cost is called the
A. variable overhead cost variance
B. variable overhead efficiency variance
C. fixed overhead cost variance
D. fixed overhead volume variance
Business
1 answer:
topjm [15]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

B. variable overhead efficiency variance

Explanation:

Answer option A, C, and D are incorrect. In variable overhead cost variance, we determine the difference between the actual and budgeted cost. In fixed overhead cost variance, we do not use allocation base cost. Again, in fixed overhead volume variance, we cannot use allocation base cost.

'B' is correct because the difference between the actual allocation base quantity and budgeted allocation base quantity multiplying with the standard rate states the variable overhead efficiency variance. The activity level is required to determine efficiency variance.

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The general ledger of Sandhill Corporation as of December 31, 2021, includes the following accounts: Copyrights $ 58000 Deposits
Dafna1 [17]

Answer:

$687,000

Explanation:

Intangible Assets are identifiable assets of a non-monetary asset  and without physical substance. Intangible assets include trademarks, copyrights and goodwill that is acquired.

Important to note that Internally generated Goodwill  is not defined as an assets. Thus, deposits with advertising agency of $35,000 are not included within tangible assets

<u>Calculation of Total Intangible Assets will be :</u>

Intangible Assets Calculation = (Copyrights) $ 58,000  + (Goodwill Acquired) $560,000 + (Trademarks) $69,000

                                                 = $687,000

Therefore,

Sandhill's balance sheet as of December 31, 2021 should report total intangible assets of $687,000

5 0
2 years ago
he most recent financial statements for Bello Co. are shown here: Income Statement Balance Sheet Sales $ 18,900 Current assets $
Pavel [41]

Answer:

9.69%

Explanation:

Given the following :

Net income = $4819

Total asset = $38,200

Taxable income = $6,100

Dividend payout ratio = 30% = 0.3

The internal growth rate is calculated thus ;

(Return on asset × Retention ratio)/[1-(Return on asset × Retention ratio)]

Return on asset = (Net income / total asset)

Return on asset = ($4,819 / $38,200)

Return on asset = 0.12615

Retention ratio = 1 - Dividend payout ratio

Retention ratio = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7

Hence internal growth rate :

(0.12615 × 0.7) / 1 - (0.12615 × 0.7)

0.088305 / 1 - 0.088305

0.088305 / 0.911695

= 0.0968580

= 0.0968580 × 100%

= 9.685%

= 9.69% ( 2 decimal places)

6 0
2 years ago
Sheffield Corporation has 84,000 shares of common stock outstanding. It declares a $1 per share cash dividend on November 1 to s
aliya0001 [1]

Answer: Please check in the explanation column for answer

Explanation: The entries on the appropriate dates to record the declaration and payment of cash dividend in Sheffield Corporation  is given as

Nov 1.

Debit: Cash Dividends 84,000

Credit: Dividends Payable 84,000

Dec 31.

Debit: Dividends Payable 84,000

Credit: Cash 84,000

7 0
2 years ago
Two examples of generally accepted accounting principles are:
tresset_1 [31]
The answer to this question is: <span> accounting for leases and accounting for fair value assets
Leases and fair value assets is often used by companies in order to make their company valuation seem higher than it supposed to be. So, standardized rules regarding the proper way to make the valuation should be written under the Generally accepted accounting principles.</span>
8 0
2 years ago
Pls help me and merry Christmas
ser-zykov [4K]

Answer:

monthly

Explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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