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ahrayia [7]
2 years ago
13

Solve the equation for the y-value and choose whether it is a direct variation or inverse variation.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Leona [35]2 years ago
7 0

\\ \sf\longmapsto xy=7

  • Take x to right and divide

\\ \sf\longmapsto y=\dfrac{7}{x}

Hence

.\\ \sf\longmapsto y\propto \dfrac{1}{x}

Inverse variation

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Fiil in the blanks .<br><br>Please give the answer fast .<br><br>I will mark you as brainliest.​​
dalvyx [7]

Answer:

1. An algebraic expression of three non-zero terms only is called a trinomial.

2. like terms

3. x=49

4. positive

6 0
3 years ago
How do you know pi x r x r x h
Nat2105 [25]
V= πr^2h

This is the formula for volume of a cylinder. The volume formula builds off the area formula. Where area is more 2-dimensional, volume is 3-dimensional. You can think of a flat sheet of paper for area (2-dimensional) and a solid box for volume (3-dimensional).

Usually your teacher would give the formulas when starting this section of math. From there, either keep a list of needed formulas in your math folder for easy reference, or try to memorize the formulas for the current section of math you are working on. Some teachers allow formula reference sheets and some do not.

Hope this answers your question! :)
4 0
3 years ago
a student bought a juice pouch for $2.50 and 3 bags of chips. the total cost was $5.05 write and solve an equation to determine
Wittaler [7]

First, write it as an equation

2.50+3x=5.05

Next, subtract 2.50 from both sides

2.50-2.50+3x=5.05-2.50

3x=2.55

Divide 3 on both sides

3x/3=2.55/3

x=0.85

The cost of a bag of chips is 0.85

hope i helped :D

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is an equation to show the relationship between 7 meters and 0.007 kilometers
Dafna11 [192]

Answer:

1 kilometer = 1000 meters

or

0.001 kilometers = 1 meter

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Perform the indicated operation 5 1/6 - 2 2/3
goldenfox [79]

Answer:

2½

Step-by-step explanation:

First find the Least Common Denominator [LCD], which is 6, then convert 5⅙:

5⅙ → 4 7⁄6

5 \frac{1}{6}  - 2 \frac{2}{3}  = 4 \frac{7}{6}  -  2 \frac{4}{6}  = 2 \frac{3}{6}  = 2 \frac{1}{2}

You see, we regrouped 1 from 5⅙ to make sure that the top mixed number had a higher value than the bottom mixed number, so it is much easier to work with.

I am joyous to assist you anytime.

7 0
3 years ago
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