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AleksandrR [38]
4 years ago
8

Ryan made 4 identical necklaces, each having beads and a pendant. the total cost of the beads and pendants for all 4 necklaces w

as $18.80 . if the beads cost a total of $9.20 , how much did each pendant cost?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Monica [59]4 years ago
5 0
Write an equation to show all elements:

Cost of 4 lots of b (beads) + cost of 4p (pendants) = $18.80

Put values in;
9.29 + 4p = 18.80
4p = 18.80 - 9.20
4p = 9.60
p = 2.40 cost of each pendant
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Need help with these math questions please.
Bas_tet [7]

Answer:

8 - 2π square units.

π/16 - 1/8 square units.

6π - 9√3 square units.

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of the square = 2√2 * 2√2

= 2*2*2

= 8.

The area of the circle = πr^2

= π * [ ( 2√2)/ 2) ]^2

=  π (√2)^2

=  2π.

Second Question:

The area of the circle = π(1/2)^2 = π/4.

Finding the area of the square:

1^2 = 2x^2

x^2 = 1/2

So the area of the square = 1/2

So the area of the red part = 1/4 ( π/4 - 1/2).

= π/16 - 1/8.

Third question

Area of the circle = 6^2 * π = 36π.

Now 60 degrees is 1/6 of 360 degrees so the are of the sector is 6π.

The area of the segment = 6π -  0.5 * 6^2 sin 60

= 6π - 18√3/2

= 6π - 9√3 square units.

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Find the area of the shaded region
melamori03 [73]
LxW 5x5=25 If you know one side is five than the other side is 52 because they’re both equal its the radius compared to the diameter radius is five the diameter is 10
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Factor this x^3 + 27
masya89 [10]
(x+3)(x^2-3x+9)

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8 0
3 years ago
40 divided by 6 using integer division
Nitella [24]

Answer: 40 divided by 6 is equal to 6 with a remainder of 4: 40 / 6 = 6 R.

Step-by-step explanation:Start by setting it up with the divisor 6 on the left side and the dividend 40 on the right side like this:

           

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

The divisor (6) goes into the first digit of the dividend (4), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (6 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

       0    

Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (4 - 0 = 4) and write the answer below.

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4    

Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (0) like this:

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

The divisor (6) goes into the bottom number (40), 6 time(s). Therefore, put 6 on top:

       0 6  

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (6 x 6 = 36) and write that answer at the bottom:

       0 6  

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

      3 6  

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (40 - 36 = 4) and write the answer at the bottom.

       0 6  

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

     - 3 6  

         4  

You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend. The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number. Therefore, the answer to 40 divided by 6 calculated using Long Division is: 6

4 Remainder

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