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skad [1K]
2 years ago
14

ABC with altitude \overline{BD}

Mathematics
1 answer:
just olya [345]2 years ago
8 0

The length of \overline{AC} is given by the relationship between the similar triangles

ΔABD and ΔBDC.

  • \overline{AC} = <u>80</u>

Reasons:

The given parameters are;

The altitude of triangle ΔABD = \overline {BD}

The hypotenuse of formed right triangle = \overline {AC}

The length of AD = 8

Length of BD = 24

Whereby  ΔABD is a right triangle

We have;

ΔABD is similar to ΔBDC

Therefore, by similar triangle proportional sides relationship, we have;

\displaystyle \frac{\overline{AD}}{\overline{BD}}  = \mathbf{ \frac{\overline{BD}}{\overline{DC}}}

Which gives;

\overline{BD}^2 = \mathbf{\overline{DC} \times \overline{AD}}

Therefore;

\displaystyle \overline{DC} = \mathbf{\frac{\overline{BD}^2}{\overline {AD}}}

\displaystyle \overline{DC} = \frac{24^2}{8} = \mathbf{72}

\overline{AC} = \overline{DC} + \overline{AD}

Which gives;

\overline{AC} = 72 + 8 =\mathbf{ 80}

Learn more about similar triangles here:

brainly.com/question/4618367

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Answer: -3

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3 years ago
A manufactured lot of buggy whips has 20 items, of which 5 are defective. A random sample of 5 items is chosen to be inspected.
Finger [1]

Answer:

P(X=1)

And using the probability mass function we got:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts  

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Solution to the problem  

For this cae that one buggy whip would be defective is p = \frac{5}{20}=0.25

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.25)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

And we want to find this probability:

P(X=1)

And using the probability mass function we got:

P(X=1) = (5C1) (0.25)^1 (1-0.25)^{5-1}= 0.396

3 0
3 years ago
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48f=8b
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6f=b
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6f=1b                                                             3f=y
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

RT=12

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Point Form:
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Equation Form:
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