Answer:
On February 1, a customer's account balance of $2,700 was deemed to be uncollectible.
The entry to be recorded on February 1 to record the write-off assuming the company uses the allowance method is:
Debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $2,700; credit Accounts Receivable $2,700.
Explanation:
Using the allowance method, every bad debt entry is first reflected in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts before it is taken to the bad debt expense account.
The entries above reduce the Accounts Receivable account by the amount of the write-off and reduces the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts by the same amount. Any recovery of written off debt is also treated in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and the Accounts Receivable account in revised order. This method is unlike the direct write-off method. With the direct write-off method, the Accounts Receivable is credited with the amount of the write-off and the write-off is expensed in the Bad Debts Expense account directly.
Answer:
$51. 15
Explanation:
The selling price is $58.82
The mark-up is 15% of the selling price.
The cost price is ???
The $58.82 is 115% of the cost price.
the cost price is 100%
cost price
= 58.82/115 x 100
= $0.5114 X 100
=$51. 15
Answer:
- Single asset = Coefficient of Variation
- Portfolio = Beta
Explanation:
When dealing with standalone risk, coefficient of variation is best because it shows the amount by which the asset's returns might deviate from the average returns of the market.
As for portfolio assets that are well diversified, the best measure would be beta because diversified portfolios deal with systematic risk and beta shows the movement of the portfolio in relation to the market and so will show that systematic risk.
Answer:
D. $0.93
Explanation:
Upmove (U) = High price/current price
= 42/40
= 1.05
Down move (D) = Low price/current price
= 37/40
= 0.925
Risk neutral probability for up move
q = (e^(risk free rate*time)-D)/(U-D)
= (e^(0.02*1)-0.925)/(1.05-0.925)
= 0.76161
Put option payoff at high price (payoff H)
= Max(Strike price-High price,0)
= Max(41-42,0)
= Max(-1,0)
= 0
Put option payoff at low price (Payoff L)
= Max(Strike price-low price,0)
= Max(41-37,0)
= Max(4,0)
= 4
Price of Put option = e^(-r*t)*(q*Payoff H+(1-q)*Payoff L)
= e^(-0.02*1)*(0.761611*0+(1-0.761611)*4)
= 0.93
Therefore, The value of each option using a one-period binomial model is 0.93
Answer:
The correct answer is:
True (A)
Explanation:
Customer access strategy is a framework or a set of standards, guidelines and processes, which defines the means by which a customer and the organization can interact, and means by which the customer has access to:
- the relevant information needed to make purchases
- the right logistics for the execution of a purchase
The arear of access are mainly information (value of the product, price of products, how products work) and logistics (means of getting the products, customer service on the after-purchase needs etc).
It has been studied extensively that companies are spending 3 to 4 times as much money on creating customer access than they do on advertising, this is because even if advertising is successful, the results will not be seen if customer access is not successful, and having an efficient customer access strategy can provide a competitive advantage to the producers.
