Does the associative property hold true for division of integers

Mathematics

1 answer:

LuckyWell [14K]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

The associative property of integers does not hold true for subtraction and division of integers, as, in the case of subtraction and division, the order of the numbers is important and cannot be changed.

Step-by-step explanation:

For example, 2 - (8 - 9) = 2 - (-1) = 3. Now, if we change the order as 8 - (2 - 9) = 8 - (-7) = 15

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A coin is to be tossed as many times as necessary to turn up one head. Thus the elements c of the sample space C are H, TH, TTH,

slavikrds [6]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As stated in the question, the probability to toss a coin and turn up heads in the first try is $\frac{1}{2}$ , in the second is $\frac{1}{4}$ , in the third is $\frac{1}{8}$ and so on. Then, P(C) is given by the next sum:

$P(C)=\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}(\frac{1}{2} )^{n}=1$

This is a geometric series with factor $\frac{1}{2}$ . Then is convergent to $\frac{1}{1-\frac{1}{2}}-1=1.$ . With this we have proved that P(C)=1.

Now, observe that

$P(H)=\frac{1}{2}, P(TH)=\frac{1}{4},P(TTH)=\frac{1}{8},P(TTTH)=\frac{1}{16},P(TTTTH)=\frac{1}{32},P(TTTTTH)=\frac{1}{64}.$

Then

$P(C1)=P(H)+P(TH)+P(TTH)+P(TTTH)+P(TTTTH)=\frac{1}{2} +\frac{1}{4} +\frac{1}{8} +\frac{1}{16} +\frac{1}{32} =\frac{31}{32}$

$P(C2)=P(TTTTH)+P(TTTTTH)=\frac{1}{32}+\frac{1}{64} =\frac{3}{64}$

$P(C1\cap C2)=P(TTTTH)=\frac{1}{32}$

and

$P(C1\cup C2)=P(H)+P(TH)+P(TTH)+P(TTTH)+P(TTTTH)+P(TTTTTH)=\frac{1}{2} +\frac{1}{4} +\frac{1}{8} +\frac{1}{16} +\frac{1}{32} +\frac{1}{64}=\frac{63}{64}$