Metadata may be the term you are looking for.
Answer:
$1,100
Explanation:
EBIT = Sales - Costs - Depreciation
= $9,000 - $6,000 - $1,500
= $1,500
Net income = EBIT - Tax @ 40%
= $1,500 - $600
= $900
Operating cash flow = Net income + Depreciation
= $900 + $1,500
= $2,400
Free cash flows:
= Operating cash flow - Increase in working capital - Capital expenditure
= $2,400 - $500 - $800
= $1,100
Answer:
$3,860
Explanation:
The balance in the account Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is expected to be the projected amount in receivables of the company that will not be converting to cash.
Therefore to calculate final balance of allowance for doubtful balance
Beginning balance 2700
Bad debt expense (410000*1%) 4100
Less: Written off -2940
Ending balance 3860
So answer is $3,860
Answer:
Minimum Transfer Price is $3.50
Explanation:
The Minimum transfer price is calculated by adding the variable cost per unit with the opportunity cost. In this case where the clock division is not operating at full capacity then the opportunity cost would be considered as $0.
Moreover, the division would be able to avoid a $0.5 cost per clock. Therefore, the variable cost will be $3.50 ($4 - $0.5) after eliminating the $0.5.
Finally, the minimum transfer would as follows:
Minimum Transfer Price = Variable cost + Opportunity Cost
Minimum Transfer Price = $3.50 + $0
Minimum Transfer Price = $3.50
Answer:
The last option is the answer -$141.80
Explanation:
we will use the present value formula for Trish she gets paid every first day of the month therefore she will receive an immediate payment of cash flow which will be added to the present value of future periodic value. Therefore we will find the difference between present values for Trish and Josh which have the same amounts which they'll receive per month.
Given: Trish and josh both receive $450 per month therefore that will be C the monthly future payment that will be received.
They will receive these amounts in a course period of Four years so that will be n = 4 x12=48 because we know that they will receive these payments every month or on a monthly basis for four years. which n represent periodic payments.
i which is the discount rate of 9.5%/12 as we know they will recieve these amounts monthly.
Therefore using the following formulas for present value annuity:
Pv = C[(1-(1+i)^-n)/i] and Pv= C[(1-(1+i)^-n)/i](1+i) then get the difference between these two present values for Trish and Josh.
therefore we will substitute the above values on the above mentioned formula to get the difference:
Pv= 450[(1-(1+9.5%/12)^-48)/(9.5%/12)] - 450[(1-(1+9.5%/12)^-48)/(9.5%/12)](1+9.5%/12) then we compute and get
Pv= $17911.77614 - $18053.5777
Pv = -$141.80 is the difference between the two sets of present values as one has an immediate payment and one doesn't have it.
