The theorem would be: If in a triangle two angles equal one another, then the sides opposite the equal angles also equal one another.
This works for any triangle in fact, not just an isosceles (obviously, the theorem implies that the triangle in question is isosceles but you don’t need to know that in advance)
Answer:
B
Step-by-step explanation:
It's simple really you take the x axis and subtract it by the answer
<em>Without</em> using a truth table:
(<em>p</em> ⇒ <em>q</em>) ∨ <em>q</em> ⇔ (¬<em>p</em> ∨ <em>q</em>) ∨ <em>q</em> ⇔ ¬<em>p</em> ∨ <em>q</em> ⇔ <em>p</em> ⇒ <em>q</em>
<em />
<em>With</em> a table:
<em>p</em> … <em>q</em> … <em>p</em> ⇒ <em>q</em> … (<em>p</em> ⇒ <em>q</em>) ∨ <em>q</em>
T … T … T … T
T … F … F … F
F … T … T … T
F … F … T … T
Answer:
see explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
The exponents can only be added if the bases are the same
Here one base is 12 and the other is 11
So the rule of addition is not applicable.
True
Because you would first need to find the calculus of 3 and then divide 4 and
crossover it to 5 by the power of 20. Then you would need to get
measurements of angle AC which is 145* and then find the square root of 160.
Once that is done find angle AB (172*) and add it to -pix. After that add it all
up and find the quotient. Then multiply it by infinite. So it is true
I hope this helps