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denis-greek [22]
3 years ago
6

Rupees 4000 amount to ₹5000 in 8 eyears in what time will ₹2100 to 2800 at the same rate ?​

Mathematics
1 answer:
solong [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

  • 10 2/3 years or 10 years and 8 months

Step-by-step explanation:

Assumed it is a simple interest with rate r.

<u>Find the rate:</u>

  • 4000(1 + 8r) = 5000
  • 1 + 8r = 5000/4000
  • 8r = 1/4
  • r = 1/32

<u>Find the time for the second amount:</u>

  • 2100(1 + 1/32t) = 2800
  • 1 + 1/32t = 2800/2100
  • 1 + 1/32t = 1 1/3
  • 1/32t = 1/3
  • t = 32/3
  • t = 10 2/3
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So an example


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7 0
4 years ago
3.
Vitek1552 [10]
To solve this we are going to use the future value of annuity due formula: FV=(1+ \frac{r}{n} )*P[ \frac{(1+ \frac{r}{n})^{kt}-1 }{ \frac{r}{n} } ]
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FV is the future value
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r is the interest rate in decimal form 
n is the number of times the interest is compounded per year
k is the number of deposits per year

We know for our problem that P=420 and t=15. To convert the interest rate to decimal form, we are going to divide the rate by 100%: r= \frac{10}{100} =0.1. Since Ruben makes the deposits every 6 months, k=2. The interest is compounded semiannually, so 2 times per year; therefore, k=2.
Lets replace the values in our formula:

FV=(1+ \frac{r}{n} )*P[ \frac{(1+ \frac{r}{n})^{kt}-1 }{ \frac{r}{n} } ]
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