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2 years ago

describes demand when a given change in price causes a relatively larger change in the quantity demanded

1 answer:

4 0

Answer:

Explain: Demand is elastic when a change in price causes a relatively larger change in quantity demanded. Demand is inelastic when a change in price causes a relatively smaller change in quantity demanded. Demand is unit elastic when a change in price causes a proportional change in quantity demanded.

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uysha [10]

1. Annual percentage rate

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5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Refer to the accompanying consumption schedule in an economy. All figures are in billions of dollars. If gross investment is $34

dezoksy [38]

Answer:

C+$64

Explanation:

The GDP measures the market value of all good and services produced in an economy (country or region) in a specific period of time. It is calculated by this formula:

GDP= Consumption (C)+ Investment (I)+ Government expenditure ()+ Net exports (exports-imports)

A lump-sum tax at all levels of GDP means that no matter what GDP value is, the tax will be the same amount. If the tax is collected by the government then the GDP will increase because the government expenditure is income ( most of them are taxes) minus expenses ( public investment in education, health, etc)

GDP= C+$34+$30+0

After tax, the equilibrium level of GDP will be C+$64

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3 years ago

Ruben, the owner of Fitstem, a popular gym, analyzes the competition that the gym faces and understands the changing needs of it

Llana [10]

Planning skills is what I think

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3 years ago

Which one of these affects the length of the cash cycle but not the operating cycle? A) Inventory period B) Accounts payable per

kifflom [539]

Answer:

E) Both the accounts receivable and the accounts payable periods

Explanation:

The account receivable and the accounts payable affect the length of the cash cycle. This is because, the longer the cash cycle, the more likely a firm will need external financing.

4 0

3 years ago

In Chile, one worker can harvest 4 pounds of peppers or 4 pounds of coffee beans. In Argentina, one worker can harvest 2 pounds

Monica [59]

Chile- 4 pounds of coffee beans, Argentina - 16 pounds of coffee beans, is the correct solution of the question.

<h3>Explanation of the question?</h3>

It loses 4 pounds of coffee beans if one worker produces 4 pounds of peppers. As a result, if the worker produces 4 pounds extra peppers, 4 pounds of coffee beans will be lost. As a result, the opportunity cost of generating an additional 4 pounds of peppers for Chile is equal to 4 pounds of coffee beans.

Argentina's case:

It loses 8 pounds of coffee beans if one worker produces 2 pounds of peppers.

As a result, if the worker produces 1 pound of pepper, it loses = 8/2 = 4 pounds of coffee beans.

The worker will lose = 4 * 4 = 16 pounds of coffee beans if he produces 4 pounds of peppers.

As a result, the potential cost of producing an additional 4 pounds of peppers for Argentina is 16 pounds of coffee beans.

Thus, it is 4 pounds of coffee beans, Argentina - 16 pounds of coffee beans.

For more details about about the question, click here:

brainly.com/question/15304707

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8 0

1 year ago