Answer:33.75%
Explanation:
Let’s assume the price without discount is $100 .
Now from the information given , we have $100-0.25*$100 =0.75*$100
Which is 0.75 *$100= $75 is the price after the first discount .
0.75 - 0.55*$75= 0.45*$75
Now 0.45*75 = 33.75% which is the percentage of the original price .
Available options are:
A. The sale would be proper only upon requisite approval by the appropriate number of directors and at no more than Shephard's cost, thus precluding his profiting from the sale to the corporation.
B. The sale would be void under the self-dealing rule.
C. The sale would be proper and Shephard would not have to account to the corporation for his profit if the sale was approved by a disinterested majority of the directors.
D. The sale would not be proper, if sold for the present fair value of the property, without the approval of all of the directors in these circumstances.
Answer:
C. The sale would be proper and Shephard would not have to account to the corporation for his profit if the sale was approved by a disinterested majority of the directors.
Explanation:
The reason is that the transaction is arms length transaction and in this transaction the payer pays the amount that he must pay for an equivalent item which we call an fair value payment. The receiver here is a director though but he is receiving an legitimate price and this price is fair value of the property so he is not required to mention his profit share because the company is paying him fair value of the property.
Answer:
the bonds' current market value = PV of face value + PV of coupon payments
a. The bond has a 6 percent coupon rate.
PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 5%)²⁴ = $310.07
PV of coupon payments = 30 x 13.799 (PV annuity factor, 5%, 24 periods) = $413.97
bond's market value = $724.04
b. The bond has a 8 percent coupon rate.
PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 5%)²⁴ = $310.07
PV of coupon payments = 40 x 13.799 (PV annuity factor, 5%, 24 periods) = $551.96
bond's market value = $862.03
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The answer is marginal costs in both places are the same. This
is because the farmers in both places are profit-maximizers, the value in each flat
is equal to MC or Marginal Cost and subsequently the market of corn is competitive,
the price of corn in both places is the same. Also, marginal costs are higher
in East Icicle than in Corncrib can also be a possible answer. For any given outflow
per acre Corncrib’s corn yield are far better than in East Icicle, at any level
of output, the marginal cost per acre in East Icicle must be higher in
Corncrib, which suggests that in equilibrium the output level of corn in East
Icicle is less than the output level of corn in Corncrib.
