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Stels [109]
2 years ago
15

A manufacturer of sports bicycles uses various cycling legends and sports celebrities as brand ambassadors to promote its produc

t in China. Bicycles in China are used mainly by the working class for commuting, not sports, so the promotional campaign was a failure. During which step of the international communications process did the manufacturer most likely go wrong
Business
1 answer:
Luden [163]2 years ago
5 0

Based on the information given the step of the international communications process did the manufacturer most likely go wrong is message channel.

Failure in International communication process occur when there is ineffective communication between the sender of the message and the receiver of the message.

Lack of general knowledge about the target market can as well lead to failure during promotional campaign reason being the product message to be communicated need to reflect needs of the target market.

Selling sport bicycles in other country for sporting those not means that other country use bicycles for the same purpose, based on this it is important that  message channel is carefully chosen in a situation where an encoded message is to reach the target market.

Inconclusion the step of the international communications process did the manufacturer most likely go wrong is message channel.

Learn more about  International communication process brainly.com/question/5031198

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You are planning your retirement in 10 years. You currently have $169,000 in a bond account and $609,000 in a stock account. You
Over [174]

Answer:

$187,584.20

Explanation:

Firstly, we need to calculate the total future value (FV) of the bond account and stock account after 10 year from now (when you come to retirement age):

FV_bond at retirement = 169,000 x (1 + 7.25%)^10 + 7,100 x (1 + 7.25%)^9 + 7,100 x (1 + 7.25%)^8 + … 7,100 x (1 + 7.25%)^0 = 426,230.93

FV_stock at retirement = 609,000 x (1 + 10.75%)^10 = 1,690,653.63

Total FV of your investment portfolio = 2,116,884.57

Because you plan to use up all the funds in your account after 21 equal amount withdrawals after retirement, total present value <em>(at the time you retire not now)</em> of these withdrawals <em>(discounted at 6.5%)</em> have to be equal to the value of your invesment 10 years from now, or:

2,116,884.57 = C/(1+6.5%) + C/(1+6.5%)^2 + … + C/(1+6.5%)^21, with C is the amount you plan to withdraw each year.

Solve the equation we get C = 187,584.20

<em>Note: The equation can be solved easily using Excel or BAII Plus.</em><em> </em>

5 0
3 years ago
Blanchard Company manufactures a single product that sells for $ 180 per unit and whose total variable costs are $ 126 per unit
Nuetrik [128]

Answer:

Part 1

<u>Income Statement at 15,600 units</u>

Sales ($ 180 x 15,600)                                     $2,808,000

Less Variable Costs ($126 x 15,600)             ($1,965,600)

Contribution                                                        $842,400

Less Fixed Costs                                               ($842,400)

Net Income                                                                    $0

Part 2

$3,278,000

Explanation:

Break even (units) = Fixed Cost ÷ Contribution per unit

                               = $ 842,400 ÷ ($ 180 - $126)

                               = 15,600 units

<u>Assume the company's fixed costs increase by $ 141.000</u>

Break even (units) = Fixed Cost ÷ Contribution per unit

                               = ($ 842,400 + $ 141.000) ÷ ($ 180 - $126)

                               = 18,212 units

Break even Revenue = 18,212 x  $ 180 =  $3,278,000

6 0
3 years ago
Do you think Bitcoin should be regulated?
nignag [31]
Yeah hooray hooray hooray
5 0
3 years ago
Assume Time Warner shares have a market capitalization of $40 billion. The company is expected to pay a dividend of $0.25 per sh
Leviafan [203]

Answer:

6.88%

Explanation:

cost of equity = (next period dividend / by price) + growth rate in dividends.

cost of debt = yield to maturity x (1 - tax rate)

WACC =  weight of debt x cost of debt + weight of equity x cost of equity.

cost of equity = ($0.25 / $40) + 0.07

= 0.07625

cost of debt = 0.09 x (1 - 0.4)

=0.054

WACC = ($40Billion x 0.07625) / 60billion + ($20 billion x 0.054) / $60billion

= 0.05083 + 0.018

= 0.0688 or 6.88%

5 0
3 years ago
1. Anna sewed a pillow case which she market for 300 if she added 20% for her profit
dem82 [27]

Answer:

i think it's C...P 320.00

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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