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dexar [7]
2 years ago
6

You sell friendship bracelets. You have an agreement with your best friend, Georgina, who is a great artist

Business
1 answer:
disa [49]2 years ago
7 0
Answer
False

Explanation
You are still giving her the 25% not him
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Explain why each of the following statements is a rationale for conducting active or passive policy: Economic circumstances can
Vladimir79 [104]

Answer:

The rationale for conducting active policy is the interest of Congress to alter the state of the economy through a deliberate change in established policies.

But in the case of Passive policy, the government permits the status quo.

Active policy relies on the government to enforce it while passive policy does not need the government's interference to work in stabilizing the economy.

Explanation:

The following statements applies passive policy because the economy is expected to stabilize on it's own without the deliberate act of congress influencing it:

  • Economic circumstances can change dramatically between the time that an economic downturn begins and the time when policy actions have an effect on the economy.
  • Fluctuations in economic output have been less severe since World War II.

The following statements is a rationale for conducting active policy since the government's intervention is required:

  • Economists are not very accurate forecasters.
  • Increases in government spending generate increases in economic output.
6 0
3 years ago
Vaughn Corporation had 303,000 shares of common stock outstanding on January 1, 2017. On May 1, Vaughn issued 31,200 shares.
Helga [31]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the  weighted-average number of shares outstanding  in each cases is as follows:

a. At the time when the shares are issued at cash

= (303,000 × 12 ÷ 12) + (31,200 × 8 ÷ 12)

= 303,000 + 20,800

= 323,800 shares

b. At the time when the shares are issued in the stock dividend

= (303,000 × 12 ÷ 12) + (29,700 × 12 ÷ 12)

= 303,000 + 29,700

= 332,700 shares

4 0
3 years ago
The previous value of a portfolio that must be regained before a hedge fund can charge their investors performance fees is known
Margarita [4]

Answer:

high watermark

Explanation:

A high watermark refers to the mark at which the investment could be reached at a high peak. It to be calculated on that date when the performance fees are charged and it could be charged only on that case when there is a rise in the value of the portfolio

Moreover,  in the high watermarks there is no need to pay the performance based fee when there is a poor performance

Therefore the given situation represent the high watermark

4 0
3 years ago
A mortgage of $80,000 with 2 points means the borrower would have to pay at closing $800. Group startsTrue or FalseTrue, unselec
zavuch27 [327]

A mortgage of $80,000 with 2 points means the borrower would have to pay at closing $800 is false because the real pay at closing is $1,600.

<h3>What is mortgage?</h3>

A mortgage is a loan that is used to buy or to maintain a land, home, or other sort of real estate.

The borrower checks to refund the lender over a period of time, usually in an ordination of regular installments divided into principal and interest. The property is used as security for the loan.

According to the given information,

Mortgage Amount = $80,000

Points = 2

Let the 2 points is taken as a percentage:

Point 1 = 1%, and

Point 2 = 2%

Now, as we know that in the loan process, the amount of point is cyphered at the closing. Then, the closing cost is commuted as:

\text{Closing Cost Amount} =\text{Mortgage} \times \text{Points}\\\\\text{Closing Cost Amount} =$80,000 \times 2\%\\\\\text{Closing Cost Amount} =\$1,600

Therefore, the given problem is false, that the borrower have to pay $800, he would have to pay only $1,600.

Learn more about the mortgage, refer to:

brainly.com/question/15074748

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
A decrease in transfer payments has the same basic effect on aggregate demand as?
SashulF [63]

A decrease in transfer payments has the same basic effect on aggregate demand as larger the marginal propensity to save.

<h3>What is aggregate demand?</h3>

Aggregate demand refers to the total amount of the money spent on the purchase of the commodity for the particular period of time. It includes the demand of the consumer goods, imports, and government spending.

When the change in the  transfer payments, it affects the consumption level of the individual, which results in the shift in the aggregate demand of the product.

Therefore, it can be concluded that A reduction in transfer payments has the same basic effect on aggregate demand as an increase in the marginal propensity to save.

Learn more about aggregate demand here:

brainly.com/question/24319248

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
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