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DaniilM [7]
3 years ago
8

A firm has determined its cost of each source of capital and its optimal capital structure which is comprised of the following s

ources;
Long-term debt = 45%, after-tax cost = 7%
Preferred stock = 15%, after-tax cost = 10%
Common stock equity = 40%, after-tax cost = 14%
The weighted average cost of capital for this firm is;
Business
1 answer:
barxatty [35]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

10.25%

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Long-term debt = 45%, after-tax cost = 7%

Preferred stock = 15%, after-tax cost = 10%

Common stock equity = 40%, after-tax cost = 14%

Now,

The  weighted average cost of capital for this firm will be calculated as:

= Long term debt × after-tax cost + Preferred stock × after-tax cost + Common stock equity × after-tax cost

or

= 0.45 × 0.07 + 0.15 × 0.10 + 0.40 × 0.14

or

= 0.0315 + 0.015 + 0.056

= 0.1025

or

= 0.1025 × 100%

= 10.25%

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The Rhaegel Corporation’s common stock has a beta of 1.2. If the risk-free rate is 4.3 percent and the expected return on the ma
alexira [117]

Answer:

Cost of equity = 14.74%

Explanation:

The capital asset pricing model is a risk-based model for estimating the return on a stock..

Here, the return on equity is dependent on the level of reaction of the the equity to changes in the return on a market portfolio. These changes are captured as systematic risk.

Systematic risks are those which affect all economic actors in the market, they include factors like changes in interest rate, inflation, etc. The magnitude by which a stock is affected by systematic risk is measured by beta.  

Under CAPM,  

E(r)= Rf + β(Rm-Rf)  

E(r)- cost of equity , Rf-risk-free rate , β= Beta, Rm= Return on market.  

Using this model, we can work out the value of beta as follows:  

β-1.2 Rf- 4.3%, Rm = 13%  

E(r) = 4.3% + 1.2 × (13 - 4.3)%=14.74 %

Expected return = 14.74 %

Cost of equity = 14.74%

8 0
3 years ago
A government deficit has decreased from 100 to 60. The country's trade deficit is 120 and private savings equal 80 and investmen
charle [14.2K]

Answer:

40

Explanation:

According to Ricardian theory, any change in budgets deficits or surpluses should be completely offset by an equal change in private savings.

In this case, the original amount of private savings was 80, but since the budget deficit decreased by 40, then the private saving should also decrease by 40. The total private saving = 80 - 40 = 40

3 0
3 years ago
My boss does not get the technical aspect of the job my group is trying to complete. I understand the intricacies of the project
Setler79 [48]

The given situation is called as “Expectation Management”

<u>Explanation: </u>

"The management of expectations is one of the most powerful weaponry in psychological warfare. In managing expectations people instinctively disregard other people's thoughts and then use the technique intentionally, considering own ideas as they reveal them to other people."

The manager knows just well the essence of your venture, his point of view is a little different from yours and you have to understand his point of view (or even more) because he wants to comprehend yours.

Therefore, the manager is less involved in the execution and the technical aspects of operation than can the performance and how it works to meet its organizational goals. And that's how you should refer to the manager. Clearly, your ability to provide is limited, depending on how many hours you work every day.  

Any requests he makes, create scope, calculate the cost (how fast), and ask him to give priority to other demands. On this basis, you can determine when you can provide what.

6 0
3 years ago
On December 31, 2019, the unadjusted credit balance of the Allowance for Overvaluation of Inventories: Hope Branch ledger accoun
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

                                Journal entries

Date           Particulars                                    Debit         Credit

31, Dec 19  Investment in Branch Office     $132,000

                         To Inventories                                         $110,000

                         To Allowance for Overvaluation of        $20,000

                         Inventories

31, Dec 19    Profit and loss                          $18,400

                           To Investment in Branch Office            $18,400

31, Dec 19     Allowance for Overvaluation   $10,000

                     of Inventories

                           To Realized Gross Profit: Branch Sales  $10,000

Workings

1. Unrealized Inter-company Inventory Profit = (132,000/120) * 20 = $22,000

Shipment to Branch = 132,000 - 22,000 = $110,000

2. Unrealized Inter-company Inventory Profit = (60,000/120) * 2 = $10,000

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lyudmila [28]
Employees be bonkers
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