Answer:
C. straight back chairs will be overcosted
Explanation:
Miller Company makes two types of chairs. One of the chairs is a rocking chair. The other is a straight-back chair. Both chairs are made by hand. Miller Company uses a company-wide overhead rate that is based on direct labor hours to assign overhead costs to the two products. If Miller automates the production of straight-back chairs and continues to use direct labor hours as a company-wide allocation basis:
A. rocking chairs will be undercosted
B. There should be no impact on unit cost
C. straight back chairs will be overcosted
D. rocking chairs will be overcosted.
EXPLANATION
If Miller automates the production of straight-back chairs and continues to use direct labor hours as a company-wide allocation basis then the straight back chairs will be overcosted<u> because the automation process directly implies that it no longer drives labor hours since it is no longer made by hand.</u>
Automated processes should use machine hours rather than labor hours, for the allocation of its overhead.
Answer:
a. Book value is greater than cash received.
Explanation:
Book value of an asset is the cost of an asset less accumulated depreciation
Cash received is the price the asset is sold for.
If the asset is sold for less than its book value, it is sold at a loss
If an asset is sold for more than its book value, it is sold at a gain
Answer:
cumulative quantity discounts
Explanation:
Many customer’s purchase items and commodities at the end of the seasons because at year-end, the sellers, manufacturers and dealers offer various discounts to clear the inventory. Likewise, customers of savvy often buy commodities at the end of a quarter or a season to earn cumulative quantity discounts; it is a discount that is given to consumers who buy a specific amount of quality.
Answer:
B) $(1,813)
Explanation:
Initial investment = 17,550
Annual cashflows = 2,650
Terminal Cashflow = 500
You can solve for NPV using financial calculator with the following inputs;
CF0= -17,550
C01 = 2,650
F01 (Frequency) = 19
C02 = 2,650 + 500 = 3,150
I=16%
Net present value; NPV = -1,812.879 or -1,813 rounded off to the nearest whole number.
Solution:
Q MC FC VC TC AFC AVC ATC
0 NA 50 0 50 NA NA NA
1 50 50 50 105 50 50 105
2 19 50 64 104 20 32 52
3 85 40 149 189 13.33 49.67 63.00
4 223 40 372 412 10 93 103
TC=FC+VC
FC=40
VC=TC-FC
MC=change in TC
AFC=FC/Q
AVC=VC/0
ATC=TC/0
a) TC when 0=0 = 40 because FC = 40 remains constant and the firm still incurs a total cost equal to its FC when it produces zero output.
b) MC for first unit = 45
c) ATC of 3rd unit = 63
d) AVC for 4th unit = 93
