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Effectus [21]
3 years ago
8

Why does Truman think the Taft-Hartley Act would harm American laborers and employers?

History
2 answers:
Mashcka [7]3 years ago
8 0
He thought that the act should not exist because it restricts the power of unions and the people's right to unionize. He went as far as to call it a "slave-labor bill", when he vetoed it in 1947. He also argued that it was against building a democratic society and that the bill was unconstitutional because it limited free speech.
Naddik [55]3 years ago
4 0

Truman states that labor unions over the years have increased the living standards of American workers to the point of being the highest in the world. The bill, he claims, would weaken the ability of unions to maintain those high standards for US workers. He also states that employers would regret the bill because it is “loaded with provisions that would plague and hamper management.” In addition, he states that the bill would have a negative effect by taking labor disputes out of the workplace and into the courtroom.

make me brainliest please

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Scalawags and carpetbaggers are terms associated with which following
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Answer:

(Scalawag - 1840s)   (Carpetbagger - 1865 -1877)

Explanation:

The term carpetbagger was used by opponents of Reconstruction—the period from 1865 to 1877 when the Southern states that seceded were reorganized as part of the Union—to describe Northerners who moved to the South after the war, supposedly in an effort to get rich or acquire political power.

The term scalawag was originally used as far back as the 1840s to describe a farm animal of little value; it later came to refer to a worthless person. For opponents of Reconstruction, scalawags were even lower on the scale of humanity than carpetbaggers, as they were viewed as traitors to the South.

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B)- Serve in Court on a Jury, this is not a responsibility this is an obligation, and failing to do so will lead to major consequences. The rest are responsibilities that people don't really have to do, but it highly recommended.

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How could having no national court system affect a family that moved from one state to another?
irina1246 [14]

Answer: The family would have to relearn the court system.

Explanation: The moving family would have to relearn the court system in the new state because they are guided by different constitution. An absence of national court in a country indicates that, family moving from one state to another would have to relearn how the court system in their new host state works, however, this is because the law that is used by a particular state might be different from another, and only a national court law can affect all states.

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Plato, Aristotle, and Socrates were all
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