For this case, the first thing to do is to graph the following ordered pairs:
(-6, -1)
(-3, 2)
(-1,4)
(2,7)
We observe that the graph is a linear function with the following equation:
y = x + 5
Note: see attached image.
Answer:
The function that best represents the ordered pairs is:
y = x + 5
21/50
21/50 is in its most simple form because it cannot be broken down any further.
Answer: 21/50
Well, 2/4 is equivalent to 4/8. So you can turn the 2/4 into 4/8 and then add 4/8 plus 3/8.
Answer:
0.4
Step-by-step explanation:
Yeetyettyeteheheyehe
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
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