A mixed economy has strong elements of both market and planned economics. The correct option among all the options that are given in the question is the second option or option "B". Mixed economy has been defined in different ways by different people. This kind of economy became popular during the postwar period.
According to Mendenhall and Oddou <u>self-orientation</u> predicts success in a foreign posting strengthens an expatriate's self-esteem, self-confidence, and mental well-being.
<u>Option: D</u>
<u>Explanation:</u>
Mendenhall and Oddou belief that self-orientation is beneficial to have assumption regarding success in foreign posting capacities by showcasing sufficient amount of self-confidence and mental stability.
Self-orientation allow the representative to arrange the strategy or upcoming conversation in mind according to on going scenario, this is only possible when one is having a stable self-oriented brain rather then doubtful, full of questions, nervous mode or any unimpressive act.
Here, they have correlated self-orientation with positive side of business inspite of being only self concern and not considering other factors.
Answer: 30.3%
Explanation:
Because taxes are not paid on municipal bond interest, their interest rates are usually lower with the difference accounting for the taxes paid.
For a municipal bond to be similar to a corporate bond, the tax rate must be such that it makes them equal:
Municipal bond return = Corporate bond return * (1 - tax rate)
5.75% = 8.25% * (1 - tax)
1 - tax rate = 5.75% / 8.25%
1 = 0.6969697 + Tax rate
Tax rate = 1 - 0.6969697
= 30.3%
Answer:
The correct option is B,$29.05
Explanation:
The required rate of return is can be computed using Miller and Modgiliani CAPM formula below:
Ke=Rf+Beta*Mrp
Ke is the cost of equity which is unknown
Rf is the risk free rate of 3.00%
Mrp is the market risk premium of 5.50%
Beta is 1.2
Ke=3.00%+(1.2*5.50%)
Ke =9.6%
The current price of the common stock is the present value of dividends payment and stock price(terminal value) as shown below discounted with Ke of 9.6%
Year 1 $1.25*(1+25%)=$1.56
*1/(1+9.6%)^1=$1.43
Year 2 $1.56*(1+25%)=$1.95
*1/(1+9.6%)^2=$1.63
Year 3 $1.95*(1+25%)=$2.44
*1/(1+9.6%)^3=$1.85
Year 4 $2.44*(1+25%)=$3.05
*1/(1+9.6%)^4=$2.11
Terminal value=year 4 dividend/ke=$3.05/9.6%=$31.79*1/(1+9.6%)^4=$22.03
Total present values=$1.43
+$1.63+$1.85
+$2.11
+$22.03=$29.05
Answer:
The new machine should not be purchased.
Explanation:
initial outlay = -$3,700 + $1,000 = -$2,700
cash flow years 1-4 = $700
discount rae = 8%
Using a financial calculator, the NPV = -$381.51
Since the NPV is negative, the new machine should not be purchased.
