Answer:
21/10
Step-by-step explanation:
you"ll have to take my word for it
Answer: x= (2/3,0) y=(0,2)
X=(4,0) y=(0,8)
X=(-3,0) y=(0,-3)
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
343.97
Step-by-step explanation:
The first one is 343.97. You times 324.5 with 6% also known as 0.006 which is 19.47.
Add 19.47 to 324.5 and you get 343.97
Answer:
0.6836 = 68.36% probability that the player will win at least once.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each game, there are only two possible outcomes. Either the player wins, or the player loses. The probability of winning a game is independent of any other game, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And p is the probability of X happening.
25% chance of winning
This means that 
Plays the game four times
This means that 
What is the probability that the player will win at least once?
This is:

In which



0.6836 = 68.36% probability that the player will win at least once.
On Monday, Alex had $2 in his allowance. His mom gave him 5 times that amount. On Wednesday, his little brother had $3 and his mom gave him 6 times the amount he has. Him and his brother wants to combine the money together and later that day, they spent $12 on candy.