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shtirl [24]
3 years ago
12

Writing equation in slope intercept form

Mathematics
1 answer:
Aleksandr-060686 [28]3 years ago
7 0
I will do B only. You do the rest. The idea is to isolate y for all equations.

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Three added to 4 times a number is equal to 5 less than 6 times the number. What is the number?
kifflom [539]
4x+3=6x-5
3=2x-5
8=2x
4=x
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need help it’s this if you awnser correctly I will mark you
Mnenie [13.5K]

Answer:

b, x = 17

Step-by-step explanation:

A right angle (as shown by the box in the corner of the angle) is 90°.

So, the two angles have to add up to 90°.

22 + 4x = 90

Subtract 22 from both sides.

4x = 68

Divide both sides by 4.

x = 17

The answer is b, 17

Hope this helps! Feel free to ask any questions! :)

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLZ HELP ill GIVE BRAINIESt!!!!
Debora [2.8K]
I am repeating again the solution, although I don't think there was a mistake:

0.36 (with the bar over 36) means the number under the is repeating itself, we call it a recurring decimal.

So 36 ,with a bar over 36 means: 0.3636363636....

To write any recurring decimal in a fraction, you have to multiply & divide at the same, the number with 100 , if you choose 0.36 or with 10,000 if you choose  0.3636 or with 1,000,000 if you choose 0.363636 (note that the number of Zeros equal the number of chosen decimals.

In our example let's take 0.3636 , then we multiply it by 10,000 & divide it by same: (0.3636 x 10,000) = 3636/10,000 =1,818/5,000 = 909/2500 =0.3636
If you opt to render 0.363636 into a fraction, then you have to multiple the latter number & divide it by 1,000,000
6 0
3 years ago
Simply (tan^2 x - sec^2 x)(sin^2 x + cos^2 x)
kati45 [8]

we can use pythagorean identieis

remember that sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1

also remember that tan(x)=\frac{sin(x)}{cos{x}} and sec(x)=\frac{1}{cos(x)}

so if we take sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1 and divide both sides by cos^2(x) we get

\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}+\frac{cos^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{1}{cos^2(x)}

(\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)})^2+1=(\frac{1}{cos(x)})^2

tan^2(x)+1=sec^2(x)

subtracting 1+sec^2(x) from both sides

tan^2(x)-sec^2(x)=-1

now subsitute into original problem


\frac{tan^2(x)-sec^2(x)}{sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)}=

\frac{-1}{1}=

-1

the answer is -1

6 0
3 years ago
Explain how you know that 5/8 + 6/10 is greater then 1
WARRIOR [948]

Step-by-step explanation:

So you would need to find a common denominator to add the fractions together first, and the closest would be 40

5/8 turns into 25/40 because we times the bottom and the top by 5 to get the LCD (least common denominator)

6/10 turns into 24/40 when times by 4 for the LCD of 40

Then add them together: 25/40 + 24/40 = 49/40

And since 1 could also be written as 40/40 since that is the whole number, this means the following expression is true.

49/40 > 40/40 (or 1)

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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