The answer should be the third option.
Explanation: <u><em>North America is the non-European area did the French have the most influence at the start of the 1700s. Hope this helps! And thank you for posting your question at here on Brainly. And have a great day. -Charlie</em></u>
They were mutually beneficial between the Spanish and Californians.
Answer:
false I did the quiz just now got a 100%
Explanation:
During the Old Kingdom, Egyptian rulers or pharaohs were seen as gods in human form by the common people. These pharaohs held the ultimate power in terms of ruling and owning the land. Due to the Egyptian people's belief that pharaohs were god, they entrusted many responsibilities to the ruler.
