Explanation: <u><em>North America is the non-European area did the French have the most influence at the start of the 1700s. Hope this helps! And thank you for posting your question at here on Brainly. And have a great day. -Charlie</em></u>
They feared that more populous states would have a sort of monopoly on elections and that it was best for all states to have the exact same powers as other, smaller states.
The <em><u>OTTOMANEMPIRE</u></em>was a former empire that ruled parts of Asia, Africa and Europe between the late 1200s and 1922- its headquarters was located in the country now named Turkey.
