No is the answer to that question
D because not all Indians spoke the same language, but instead had millions of different languages and cultural ways throughout the americas...and thats the only answer that said that they had hundreds of languages and such...
Answer:
economic power is your amswer
Answer: Spain possessed the most of them at the very beginning of the colonization (till the 1st half of the 19th century), Britain possessed the most of them at the end of colonization. Denmark possessed the least and for a very limited period of time. Portugal was the first country to possess colonies and the last country that decolonized its territories (1970s) but the in comparison to Spain or Britain, its colonies were less extensive.
Explanation: it depends very much what period we are focused on. So the question is not so easy to answer. In the 16th, 17th and 18th century it was Spain that possessed the most colonies. With the decolonization of South America and Central America and with the territorial expansion of the USA during the 19th century situation changes. For the growth of the British cololonial system, 18th century (Seven Years´ War) was crucial...at that time Britain eliminated its rival, France, from its significant position. Then, the Britain maintained the first position. On the other extreme there are less significant colonial powers: the Dutch and especially Danes.
