SOLUTION
From the question, we are told that y varies inversely as x
This is mathematically written as

Now, we will remove the proportionality sign and replace it with equal to sign =
If we do this, we will intoduce a constant k

So we have the formula

We will substitute the values of x for 10 and y for 8 into the formula to get k, we have

Now, we will substitute k for 80 back into the formula to get the inverse function, we have

Hence the answer is option C
(9,0) (0,9) choose any two points since it’s a straight line honey and the dk the difference between the two points
9-0
———. = 1
0-9
Answer:
no it is not a solution.READ THE WHOLE EXPLANATION! IT WILL HELP WITH THE OTHER PROBLEMS!!!!
Step-by-step explanation:
when something like (1,6) is written consider it as (x,y). in this case, 1 is considered as x, and 6 is considered as y. if you substitute these number for x and x and y, (x =1 and y =6), you'll see that the equation will go from y=x +7, to 6=1+7. Which is not true.
Answer:
24×25-24×18+10
Step-by-step explanation:
it's gonna be 150 simplified
Answer:
The Taylor series of f(x) around the point a, can be written as:

Here we have:
f(x) = 4*cos(x)
a = 7*pi
then, let's calculate each part:
f(a) = 4*cos(7*pi) = -4
df/dx = -4*sin(x)
(df/dx)(a) = -4*sin(7*pi) = 0
(d^2f)/(dx^2) = -4*cos(x)
(d^2f)/(dx^2)(a) = -4*cos(7*pi) = 4
Here we already can see two things:
the odd derivatives will have a sin(x) function that is zero when evaluated in x = 7*pi, and we also can see that the sign will alternate between consecutive terms.
so we only will work with the even powers of the series:
f(x) = -4 + (1/2!)*4*(x - 7*pi)^2 - (1/4!)*4*(x - 7*pi)^4 + ....
So we can write it as:
f(x) = ∑fₙ
Such that the n-th term can written as:
