Answer:
case 1)
bonds payable 24,000
loss on retirement 5,000
discount on BP 4,500
cash 24,500
case 2)
bonds payable 24,000 debit
premium on BP 1,000 debit
gain on retirement 500 credit
cash 24,500 credit
Explanation:
we are going to write off the bonds payable and their discount account
we also debit the cash account for the amount of cash outlay to retire the bond
the difference between cash and the carrying value will be the loss on retirement when lower
and a gain on retirement when higher.
case 1)
carrying value 19,500
total cash outlay (24,500)
loss on retirement (5,000)
case 2)
carrying value 25,000
total cash outlay (24,500)
gain on retrement 500
Answer:
20.1%
Explanation:
In capital asset prcing model (CAPM), cost of equity (or cost of retained earnings in this context) is calculated as below:
<em>Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return + beta x (market index return - risk-free rate of return)</em>
Please note that <em>(market index return - risk-free rate of return)</em> is equal to <em>market risk premium</em>
Putting all the number together, we have:
Cost of equity/retained earnings = 2.5% + 2.2 x 8% = 20.1%
<em>Note: The dividend growth rate, tax rate & stock standard deviation is not relevant in answering the question.</em>
What’s the quesitos asking? Like I know it’s a quick sort but like about what?
Answer:The output will be $billion and the price level will increase.
Explanation:Long term accommodative policies by government causes a shift to the right of aggregate demand curve in response to the left shifting of the aggregate supply curve in the short run.
This change will definitely cause an increase in aggregate demand without a corresponding increase in aggregate supply to meet the demand.
In doing this the government aims to permanently higher prices in order to restore employment and output to it's original level.
Hello,
Your brainliest answer would be:
A benefit of 401k It is Less of investment risk.
Plz mark me brainliest!
Hope this helps!
