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kvv77 [185]
2 years ago
6

Identify each statement as true or false.

Business
1 answer:
Fofino [41]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

true water and the other day and the other

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The country of Ukanturk has been facing an economic downturn for two consecutive years. To revive the financial condition of the
Margaret [11]

Answer:

Fiscal policy

Explanation:

In this scenario, the government of Ukanturk is applying fiscal policies to improve overall economic performance. Two major policies are applied to move and stabilise the economy; monetary policy and fiscal policy. Monetary policy is handled by the state bank and fiscal policy is handled by the government. Taxation is a part of a fiscal decision.

8 0
3 years ago
Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return +  beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

  - Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

  - Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

  - Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

  - Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
XYZ Company leased equipment to West Corporation under a lease agreement that qualifies as a finance lease to West but not as a
melomori [17]

Answer:

132,000$ will be recorded by west as amortization expense for the year.

Explanation:

Depreciation/amortization is systematic allocation of cost of asset over its useful life. In this case asset cost is not given so we assume that PV of lease payment is equal to market value (660,000 dollars) of asset.

In case of leased asset the useful life taken for calculation of depreciation is lower of 1) Useful life 2) Lease term as per applicable accounting standards.

So we have taken 5 years to charge depreciation on Straight line method.

Hence by dividing 660000 by five we get our answer.

7 0
2 years ago
True or false: if the sales comparison approach cannot be developed because of a lack of sales data, the cost approach cannot be
vfiekz [6]

This is very true, no explanation

3 0
1 year ago
The custodian of a $450 petty cash fund discovers that the fund has $65 in coins and currency plus $382 in receipts at the end o
Mandarinka [93]

The entry to replenish the petty cash fund will include a credit to cash for $385.

What is petty cash fund?

When regular purchasing techniques are impractical, such as when buying office supplies or paying employees, a tiny sum of money called petty cash is utilized instead.

The entry to replenish the petty cash fund amount will include:

Fund amount : $450 - Used

Fund amount  :$450 - $382 = 68

cash on hand - remaining ; $68 - $65 = $3

Used + remaining ; $382 + $65 = 385

As a result, a credit to cash for $385.

Learn more about on petty cash fund, here:

brainly.com/question/23864192

#SPJ1

8 0
1 year ago
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