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sergeinik [125]
2 years ago
5

Please hurry and answer

Mathematics
1 answer:
Katarina [22]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

64

Step-by-step explanation:

It’s directly adjacent to the other angle.

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CALCULUS: For the function whose values are given in the table below, the integral from 0 to 6 of f(x)dx is approximated by a Re
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The table gives values of <em>f(x)</em> at various <em>x</em> in the interval [0, 6], and you have to use them to approximate the definite integral,

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• split up [0, 6] into 3 subintervals of equal length, namely [0, 2], [2, 4], and [4, 6]

• take the left endpoints of these intervals and the values of <em>f(x)</em> these endpoints, so <em>x</em> ∈ {0, 2, 4} and <em>f(x)</em> ∈ {0, 0.48, 0.84}

• approximate the area under <em>f(x)</em> on [0, 6] with the sum of the areas of rectangles with dimensions 2 × <em>f(x)</em> (that is, width = 2 and height = <em>f(x)</em> for each rectangle)

So the Riemann sum is

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for <em>x</em> ∈ {0, 2, 4}, which is about

∫₀⁶ <em>f(x)</em> d<em>x </em>≈ 2 (0 + 0.48 + 0.84) = 2.64

making the answer A.

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