Answer: Choice B) One-sixth
In other words, the fraction 1/6
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Explanation:
The base, aka horizontal component, is 6 units long. Count out the spaces from -5 to 1 to get a result of 6.
Or you could subtract and use absolute value in either of these two ways
- |A - B| = |-5 - 1| = |-6| = 6
- |B - A| = |1 - (-5)| = |1 + 5| = |6| = 6
Where A = -5 and B = 1 are the endpoints mentioned. Absolute value is used to ensure the result of the subtraction isn't negative. Negative distance on a number line doesn't make sense.
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However you determine the base, we'll multiply it by the unknown height which we'll call h. This leads to the area of the rectangle. The area is 6h.
Rule: The area under a probability density curve must <u>always</u> be 1.
So the area 6h must be 1 which helps us see that...
6h = 1
h = 1/6
Divide both sides by 6 to isolate h fully.
Answer:-2x^2+3x-7=0
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
2.50(10) + 3x = 135.97, x = 38.66
Step-by-step explanation:
This should be pretty simple.
Basically, we know that he bought 10 pairs for 2.50 so that's $25 right there.
Our total is 135.97 though-
so here, we take our total from the right side of the equation, and subtract 25 from that.
135.97 - 25 = 115.97
Since he bought three pairs, divide it by 3.
115.97 / 3 = 38.66
One pair of shoes costs $38.66 - hope this helps!
Answer:
99.5 minutes
Step-by-step explanation:
50=45
495=?
495×45÷50=99.5
Answer:
And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function
And replacing we got:
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest "number of automobiles with both headligths working", on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
And for this case we want to find this probability:
And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function
And replacing we got:
