Yes because,
8×1 = 8
8×2 = 16
8×3 = 24
8×4 = 32
8×5 = 40
So 40 is a multiple of 8
The binomial distribution is given by,
P(X=x) =

q = probability of failure = 1-0.2 = 0.8
n = 100
They have asked to find the probability <span>of obtaining a score less than or equal to 12.
</span>∴ P(X≤12) =

where, x = 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12
∴ P(X≤12) =

+

+

+

+

+

+

Evaluating each term and adding them you will get,
P(X≤12) = 0.02532833572
This is the required probability.
Answer:
The integral is equal to
for an arbitrary constant C.
Step-by-step explanation:
a) If
then
so the integral becomes
. (the constant of integration is actually 5C, but this doesn't affect the result when taking derivatives, so we still denote it by C)
b) In this case
hence
. We rewrite the integral as
.
c) We use the trigonometric identity
is part b). The value of the integral is
. which coincides with part a)
Note that we just replaced 5+C by C. This is because we are asked for an indefinite integral. Each value of C defines a unique antiderivative, but we are not interested in specific values of C as this integral is the family of all antiderivatives. Part a) and b) don't coincide for specific values of C (they would if we were working with a definite integral), but they do represent the same family of functions.
Answer:
119
Step-by-step explanation:
Divided by x and y for total engagement of relationship between two beings of equation.