Answer:
20
Step-by-step explanation:
A left Riemann sum approximates a definite integral as:
Here, the integral is ∫₀² 9ˣ dx, and the number of subintervals is n = 4.
So Δx = 2/n = 1/2, and x = 2(k−1)/n = (k−1)/2.
Plugging in:
∑₁⁴ 9^((k−1)/2) (1/2)
1/2 ∑₁⁴ 9^((k−1)/2)
1/2 (9^((1−1)/2) + 9^((2−1)/2) + 9^((3−1)/2) + 9^((4−1)/2))
1/2 (9^(0) + 9^(1/2) + 9^(1) + 9^(3/2))
1/2 (1 + 3 + 9 + 27)
20
<span>the numbers of first 8 beads which are white are
1,5,9,13,17,21,25,29
think of it as an arithmetic progression here the first term will be 1 cause white was first bead then after 3 blue beads another white added soits position is fifth now the difference would come out as 5-1=4 so now position of next white bead could be predicted by nth term formula of an AP which a+(n-1)d here a is first term which in this case is one and d is difference which here is 4
So nth bead position is 1+(n-1)4</span>
Answer:
r = 2
Step-by-step explanation:
The correct answer to this question is option 3.
