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Stells [14]
3 years ago
12

What like is perpendicular to the Y equals 6/4 X +4

Mathematics
1 answer:
Fofino [41]3 years ago
4 0
Just flip the slope fraction, and make it negative
6 /4 negative reciprocal is -4 / 6
Then replace the slope with the new slope.
y = -4/6 x + 4
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suppose the probality that it will rain tomorrow is 0.59. what is the probality that it will not rain tomorrow​
kykrilka [37]

Answer: 0.41

Step-by-step explanation: 0.59 is 59%. To find the percentage of chance that it will not rain, you subtract 1 (which is 100%) minus 0.59. You get an answer of 0.41 (or 41% if you prefer.)

7 0
3 years ago
Determine the average rate of change from 0 to 4 for the function f(x)=2^x-3
IrinaVladis [17]
If the question meant f(x)=2^(x) -3 then the answer should be 1 over 4 or 1/4
4 0
3 years ago
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
3x + 2 ≤ 14 <br><br>-5 + 2x &gt; 15 * <br><br>-2x + 4 ≥ 18 <br><br>HaLp i don't gets
sweet-ann [11.9K]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  1. x ≤ 4
  2. x > 10
  3. x ≤ -7

Step-by-step explanation:

We're guessing you want to solve for x in each case. You do this in basically the same way you would solve an equation.

1. 3x +2 ≤ 14

  3x ≤ 12 . . . . . subtract 2

  x ≤ 4 . . . . . . . divide by 3

__

2. -5 +2x > 15

  2x > 20 . . . . . . add 5

  x > 10 . . . . . . . . divide by 2

__

3. -2x +4 ≥ 18

  4 ≥ 18 +2x . . . . . add 2x

  -14 ≥ 2x . . . . . . . subtract 18

  -7 ≥ x . . . . . . . . . divide by 2

_____

<em>Additional comment</em>

The statement above that the same methods for solving apply to both equations and inequalities has an exception. The exception is that some operations reverse the order of numbers, so make the inequality symbol reverse. The usual operations we're concerned with are <em>multiplication and division by a negative number</em>: -2 < -1; 2 > 1, for example. There are other such operations, but they tend to be used more rarely for inequalities.

You will note that we avoided division by -2 in the solution of the third inequality by adding 2x to both sides, effectively giving the variable term a positive coefficient. You will notice that also changes its relation to the inequality symbol, just as if we had left the term where it was and reversed the symbol: -2x ≥ 14 ⇔ -14 ≥ 2x ⇔ x ≤ -7 ⇔ -7 ≥ x

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
35 : ? = 20 : 24 <br> QUICKLY PLEASE!!
Archy [21]

Answer:

35:42=20:24

Hope this helps!

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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