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morpeh [17]
2 years ago
6

What is one cost of avoiding insurance?

Business
1 answer:
kkurt [141]2 years ago
8 0

Answer: One of the costs of not having insurance is the cost of repairing. Another cost is paying insurance premiums. Losses caused by a lack of insurance are the price of not having insurance.

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Your review of the ledger reveals that each account has a normal balance. You also discover the following errors. 1. The totals
Oksi-84 [34.3K]

Answer:

Debit side $29,660

Credit side $29,660

Explanation:

Preparation of a correct trial balance

DOMINIC COMPANY

Corrected Trial Balance May 31, 2015

DEBIT SIDE

Cash $5,023

($5,050 +$450 - $477)

($530-$53=$477)

Accounts Receivable $2,030

($2,570 - $540)

Prepaid Insurance $930

($830 + $100)

Supplies $450

Equipment $12,750

($13,200 - $450)

Salaries and Wages Expense $4,530

($4,330 + $200)

Advertising Expense $1,447

($970 + $477)

($530-$53=$477)

Utilities Expense $900

($800 + $100)

Dividends $1,600

TOTAL $29,660

CREDIT SIDE

Accounts Payable $5,510

($5,700 - $100 + $450 - $540)

Unearned Service Revenue $690

Common Stock $14,500

($12,900 + $1,600)

Service Revenue $8,960

TOTAL $29,660

Therefore the CORRECTED TRIAL BALANCE will be:

Debit side $29,660

Credit side $29,660

6 0
3 years ago
yeloe corporation sells 400 shares of common stock being held as an investment. The shares were acquired six months ago at a cos
Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

Entry is given below

Explanation:

Bought shares 6 months ago = 400shares x $60/share

Bought shares 6 months ago = $24,000

Sold shares = 400shares x $40/share

Sold shares = $16,000

Loss on sales proceeds  = $24,000 - $16,000

Loss on sales proceeds = $8,000

Entry:

                                      DEBIT        CREDIT

Cash                              $16,000

Loss on sale                  $8,000

Shares                                               $24,000

8 0
3 years ago
Sadik Inc.'s bonds currently sell for $1,180 and have a par value of $1,000. They pay a $105 annual coupon and have a 15-year ma
mr Goodwill [35]

Answer:

7.74%

Explanation:

In this question, we use the Rate formula which is shown in the spreadsheet.  

The NPER represents the time period.  

Given that,  

Present value = $1,180

Assuming figure - Future value or Face value = $1,100  

PMT = $105

NPER = 5 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after solving this, the answer would be 7.74%

7 0
3 years ago
The rule that requires financial statements to reflect the assumption that the business will continue operating instead of being
Elan Coil [88]

Answer:

B. Going-concern assumption.

Explanation:

The financial statements are normally prepared on the assumption that an entity is a going concern and will continue in operation for a foreseeable future. Hence, It is assumed that the entity has neither the intention nor the need to liquidate or curtail materially the scale of its operations. If such an intention or need exists, the financial statements have to be prepared on different a basis and , if so , the basis used is disclosed.

7 0
3 years ago
Bond X is noncallable and has 20 years to maturity, an 11% annual coupon, and a $1,000 par value. Your required return on Bond X
stira [4]

Answer:

You should be willing to pay $984.93 for Bond X

Explanation:

The price of a bond is equivalent to the present value of all the cash flows that are likely to accrue to an investor once the bond is bought. These cash-flows are the periodic coupon payments that are to be paid annually and the proceeds from the sale of the bond at the end of year 5.

During the 5 years, there are 5 equal periodic coupon payments that will be made. Given a par value equal to $1,000 and a coupon rate equal to 11% the annual coupon paid will be 1,000*0.11 = $110. This stream of cash-flows is an ordinary annuity.

The  PV of the cash-flows = PV of the coupon payments + PV of the value of the bond at the end of year 5

Assuming that at the end of year 5 the yield to maturity on a 15-year bond with similar risk will be 10.5%, the price of the bond will be equal to :

 110*PV Annuity Factor for 15 periods at 10.5%+ $1,000* PV Interest factor with i=10.5% and n =15

= 110*\frac{[1-(1+0.105)^-^1^5]}{0.105}+ \frac{1,000}{(1+0.105)^1^5}=$1,036.969123

therefore, the value of the bond today equals

110*PV Annuity Factor for 5 periods at 12%+ $1,036.969123* PV Interest factor with i=12% and n =5

= 110*\frac{[1-(1+0.12)^-^5]}{0.105}+ \frac{1,036.969123}{(1+0.12)^5}=$984.93

5 0
3 years ago
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