Answer:
b
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Your answer is 1
Step-by-step explanation:
Any number divided by itself is always 1
Example
6 divided by 6 is 1
5 divided by 5 is 1
4 divided by 4 is 1
3 divided by 3 is 1
2 divided by 2 is 1
1 divided by 1 is 1
A. Rolling a die, where odd numbers represent sugar cookies and even numbers represent chocolate chip cookies.
Because the sectors are of equal size, each sector has the same probability of happening.
So for every number, you have a probability of 0.2 of it appearing.
Because you have three odd numbers, the probability to land on an odd number on each spin is 0.6. You can also say that the probability to not have an odd number is 0.4.
So what is the probability to have 0 odd number in two spins?
What is the probability to have 1 odd number in two spins? You can have one odd number on the first or one odd on the second spin, that is why we add the probabilities.
What is the probability to have 2 odd numbers in two spins?
To verify if we did a good job, we add all the probabilities. We should get 1.
.
So to slide your bars, you slide them up to the number I gave you for each case.
Answer:
n = (m-1)/(4-g)
Step-by-step explanation:
m= 4n-gn+1
Subtract 1 from each side
m-1= 4n-gn+1-1
m-1 = 4n -gn
Factor out n
m-1 = n(4-g)
Divide each side by (4-g)
(m-1)/(4-g) = n(4-g)/(4-g)
(m-1)/(4-g) = n
n = (m-1)/(4-g)