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sweet [91]
3 years ago
12

If a company uses a predetermined rate for absorbing manufacturing overhead, the volume variance is the: Group of answer choices

a. Underapplied or overapplied variable cost element of overhead. b. Underapplied or overapplied fixed cost element of overhead. c. Difference in budgeted costs and actual costs of fixed overhead items. d. Difference in budgeted costs and actual costs of variable overhead items.
Business
1 answer:
Mama L [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: c. Difference in budgeted costs and actual costs of fixed overhead items.

Explanation:

If a company uses a Predetermined rate for Manufacturing Overhead this means that they have budgeted a certain cost of overhead that they believe will be sufficient for production. This is usually possible for fixed overhead items.

The Variance therefore would be the difference between this budgeted figure and the actual figure for the fixed Overhead items.

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Answer:

a. 10.14%

Explanation:

WACC = wE*rE + wP*rP + wD*rD(1-tax)     whereby;

w= weight of...

r = cost of..

Find the market values;

Common equity(E) = 5,000,000* 8 = 40,000,000

Preferred stock(P) = 10,000,000

Debt (D) = 100,000 *1000 *0.96 = 96,000,000

Total value = 146,000,000

Therefore;

wE= 0.2740

wP = 0.0685

wD = 0.6575

Cost of capital;

rE = 19% or 0.19

rP = 15% or 0.15

rD = 9% or 0.09

WACC = (0.2740*0.19) + (0.0685 * 0.15) + [0.6575*0.09(1-0.34)]

WACC = 0.0521 + 0.0103 + 0.0391

WACC = 0.1015 or about 10.14%

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Explanation:

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I hope my answer helps you

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