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olya-2409 [2.1K]
2 years ago
11

A subsequent expenditure for an asset increases the future benefits of the asset if it (Select all that apply.) Multiple select

question. extends the asset's useful life. increases the quality of the goods or services produced by the asset. repairs and maintains the asset in working order. increases the operating efficiency of the asset.
Business
1 answer:
Leona [35]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A subsequent expenditure for an asset increases the future benefits of the asset if it extends the asset's useful life.

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Prior to the merger, Firm A has $1,250 in total earnings with 750 shares outstanding at a market price per share of $42. Firm B
Julli [10]

Answer:

E) $2.31

Explanation:

Shares offered to Firm B = Shares outstanding * 0.5

= 220 * 0.5

= 110 shares

Total shares of firm A after merger = Shares outstanding before merger + Shares offered to Firm B

= 750 + 110

= 860 shares

Total earnings of firm A after merger = $1,250 + 740

Total earnings of firm A after merger = $1,990

Earnings per share of firm A after merger = Total earnings of firm A after merger / Total shares of firm A after merger

Earnings per share of firm A after merger = $1,990 / 860

Earnings per share of firm A after merger = $2.31 per share

6 0
3 years ago
Crane Roofing is faced with a decision. The company relies very heavily on the use of its 60-foot extension lift for work on lar
Novay_Z [31]

Answer:

The company should replace the equipment.

Explanation:

The cost analysis is calculated as follows;

                         Retain                Replace                 Net Income

                                     Equipment        Equipment         Increase (Decrease)

Operating expenses     $146,400                0                      $146,400

($24,400*6)  

Repair costs            $39,000                 0                    $39,000

Rental revenue                      0                 -$60000              $60,000

($10,000*6)  

New machine cost              0                $166,500            -$166,500

Sale of old machine   0               -$24,500              $24,500

Total cost                  $185,400   $82,000               $103,400

From the calculation above, the equipment should be replaced as it incur a lesser cost compare to when it is retained.

8 0
3 years ago
POINTS!!!!!!!!!!!!!! BRAINLIEST AND 20+ POINTS!!!
bekas [8.4K]

Answer:

B

Explanation:

I think you've already figured this out for yourself, but I thought I'd answer anyway and maybe clarify some things.

Supply is the total amount of a <u>good or service</u> that is available to consumers.

  • Think about it: goods are physical things bought and sold, like apples. Services are actions done for another person, like taxi driving or renting a used car.
  • None of the other answers make sense: a "device" is not a strictly defined term in economics; an "industry" can't be available to consumers, and a "warranty" isn't applicable.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Zack received a gift of stock from his uncle on June 20 of the current year. Zack's uncle had a basis in the stock of $4,000, bu
DiKsa [7]

Answer:

$4,000

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Acheson Corporation, which applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours, has provided the following data for its
Amanda [17]

Answer:

Over-applied by $3,842

Explanation:

If<em>, Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads, overheads have been overapplied.</em>

<em>and</em>

<em>Since, Applied Overheads < Actual Overheads, overheads have been under- applied.</em>

Applied Overheads = Predetermined rate x Actual Activity

where,

Predetermined rate = Budgeted Overheads  ÷ Budgeted Activity

therefore,

Predetermined rate = $ 157,050 ÷ 4,500

                                  = $34.90

Applied Overheads = $34.90 x 4,580 = $159,842

<em>Since, Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads, overheads have been overapplied.</em>

Over-applied overheads = $159,842 - $ 156,000 = $3,842

5 0
2 years ago
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